by Comatose 26 Replies latest watchtower beliefs
Correct me if I`m wrong here , but wasnt it only the preists who could use his personal name ( Gods ) in specific circumstances ? If jesus did in fact use Gods personal name surely it would have caused an uproar ?, and charges laid by the jewish religous leaders , that would have negated any involvement of the Roman judiciary 0f the time.?
I think the evidence /history says no
smiddy
"and he taught them to pray saying .... Our father who is in heaven...
and went on with his prayer. He never repeated the word 'father' umpteen times in his prayer as pray-ers in kh do with the word jehovah.
Some scholars allow for the possibility that Jesus pronounced the tetragrammaton when reading from the Hebrew scriptures (which, of course, were the only scriptures that existed in his time). But the apostle Paul sure as heck didn't. Scholars all agree that Paul quoted from a late, popular version of the Septuagint where substitutes such as Kyrios had long since replaced the tetragrammaton.
The Jewish language is similar to that of Native Americans. They use names that actually describe something, like "Sitting Bull" or "Dances with Wolves" Names in the Jewish language do pretty much the same thing! Thus God's name, YHWH, means "He Causes to Be." This presents an option or a challenge to translataors. That is, whether to translate the name or the meaning of the name.
When simply using the Jewish letters, YHWH or JHVH and then transforming that to a name in another language, it loses its meaning! This is likely the reason the decision was made NOT to translate the divine name into any other language. So if you were speaking Hebrew, you could use the divine name, but then it meant something! If you were speaking some other language, then "Lord" or "God" was sufficient for the reference.
So Jesus probably used the divine name when he was speaking Hebriew. Otherwise, he simply used "God" or "Lord" which is what we find in the Greek manuscripts. The WTS thinks they were doing a great service to "restore' the divine name in a different language when, actually, they were doing a disservice by adding anything to the ancient manuscripts. That is why they are called "the man of lawlessness."
Father is a title Yahweh prefers. It underscores access to him is granted freely, the same degree of freedom typical of father-child relationships on earth.
This translation uses caps appropriately, it conveys the correct understanding:
ISV Mt 23:9 ‘Don't call anyone on earth 'Father,' because you have only one Father, the one in heaven.'
I always found it interesting that in Matthew 6:9-13, Jesus said, "you must pray, then, this way: Our Father in the Heavens, let your name be sanctified..." If we were to use HIS name, wouldn't he have said, "Jehovah in Heaven, let your name be sanctified..."? I always wondered about this...
A Bethel speaker messed up and accidentally told the truth at the DC.
GB Truth formula:
1) Truth=God's Word
2) The truth = truthful understanding of God's word
3) Truth = verifiable fact, no assumptions or speculation
4) Truth does not change
So, God's word says ( according to Bethel Elder ) " Jesus said that his followers should address God as " Father." OOPS......
lol, good catch
@tenyearsafter
If we were to use HIS name, wouldn't he have said, "Jehovah
Great point.
Our name conveys two things about us, identity and location of our reputation. Reputation is the most important. The NT is about Jesus making God's REPUTATION name pristine clean . He will fix all that's broken since the beginning "foundation of the world" of Adam.
Huge!
