I have decided to compile a list of questions that JWs simply cannot answer without opening up a vulnerability.....such as
1) If Jesus is only mediator for the 144,000 then who is the mediator for the rest of us?
2) Plasma is one of the four main components of blood and cannot be taken. But each "fraction" that makes up plasma can be accepted so long as they are accepted individually. Why?
3) In Acts 5:42 and Acts 20:20 the original Greek term "kata oikos" is rendered "house to house". Yet Acts 2:46 translates the same word as "in private homes". Why?
4) Can you show me an example in the scriptures of anyone that preached from house to house?
5) Why do JWs urge those they meet in the ministry to investigate their beliefs....after all....what have they got to lose if they have the truth? Yet the latest district convention had a part on it that said that witnesses who even secretly doubt the organization are "testing God in their hearts". Why hold those met in the ministry to a different standard than yourself?
6) If the Watchtower Society should not be held accountable for predictions that did not come true based on the "light getting brighter" argument, then why can't other religions who have made similar mistakes use the same excuse?
7) The March 22, 1993 Awake argues that Russell and Rutherford should not be viewed as false prophets because "never did they presume to originate predictions in the name of Jehovah". Yet for decades, the masthead of the Awake read "this magazine builds confidence in the Creator's promise of a peaceful and secure new world before the generation that saw the events of 1914 passes away." The magazine tells the reader that it is the Creator's promise that this would happen. What is the difference between saying "In the name of Jehovah I predict...." and "it is the Creator's promise that...."?
8) Why were the Bible Students picked by Christ in 1919? Because they were providing "the right food at the proper time"? So if this "food" passed Jesus' inspection because it was proper, then shouldn't it still be considered proper today? If it passed His exam in 1919 why wouldn't it pass today?
9) If a teaching passed Jesus' exam in 1919 but that teaching is no longer taught today....does that mean that the new teaching would fail the exam by Jesus? If not, why not?
10) Is there a difference between "speculation" and "opinion"? If not, then why does the June 1, 1997 Watchtower say "modesty on the part of the faithful and discreet slave class......prevents it from presumptously running ahead and wildly speculating about things".......while the yearbook of 1980 says regarding the failed predictions of 1925, "this was merely an expressed opinion"?
Please......add to this list! I want to make it as long as I can