by Spike Tassel 43 Replies latest watchtower beliefs
Cabasilas,
I think that Jesus makes it clear how he wants us to address God when he TELLS us to pary to "Our Father".
Its defines the personal relationship we are to have with God, even if we knew God's name and how to pronunce it ( we don't really, we can speculate) it would be far more impoersonal to say it than to follow Jesus's instructions to call him as Our Father, this is what we are asked/told to do.
Should be good enough for us, no?
An excellent essay on it's proof is one I just found, entitled "Is The Name YHWH in the New Testament?", found at http://www.equipministry.com/studies/yhwhinnt.htm
What a crock. Luke was a Greek. And he wrote two books. Paul was a hellenized Jew writing to a mixed audience of Jews and Gentiles and he is the most prolific NT author. As the Apostle to the Gentiles do you actually think he would be writing his letters in Hebrew? Outside Judea almost no one knew Hebrew with the exception of it's use as a liturgical language in the Diaspora. John's writings also show a strong Hellenistic interpretation of the Gospel, especially in the prologue to the Gospel of John with it's reference to the Logos. His letters are considered universal epistles. Do you actually think he would have written them in Hebrew? With the possible exception of Matthew, all the NT books were originally written in koine Greek. It's just common sense. To believe otherwise is a sign of mental disorder.
BTS
Ah, even conceding to BTS regarding the substance of his Post 11558, the Tetragrammaton still appears to have been in the NT books originally, as http://www.equipministry.com/studies/yhwhinnt.htm shows. I still suggest that the Hebrew-type grammar, the quotes and citations from the OT, and other Jewish lexical influences all show their influence in whichever manuscript or translation of the NT we might consider.
