The Bible advances women's rights

by Rex B13 43 Replies latest jw friends

  • Rex B13
    Rex B13

    Our forum's NOW chapter likes to slander Christian believers over alleged poor treatment of women. In truth, the Bible advanced women's rights in the ancient world, even in a Paternalistic society. Here are the results of research into this topic.

    Num 5.12--the trial of bitter waters (Sotah) is a an amazing provision by God for a woman to publicly clear her name (and indict a dysfunctional husband in the process). This is the procedure invoked by a jealous and/or paranoid husband who suspected his wife of infidelity. God gave this law to protect the woman from physical and economic abuse from a capricious and petty husband. In many of the cultures of that day, men had absolute dictatorial rights over their wives. If they suspected adultery, they were allowed to kill the woman without any appeal on her part. There was not a process of justice, or process where they BOTH had to appear before a higher authority. In fact, in the Code of Hammurabi (c. 1720 BC.), CH 132, women who were suspected of this type of infidelity were required to throw themselves into the Euphrates river--if they drown, they were guilty; if not, they were innocent! (Pritchard, Ancient Near Eastern Texts, p. 171). God would instead provide a public vindication process, before His leaders, his people, and the couple. If the woman was vindicated, the man would bear the stigma of unfounded and paranoid jealousy, and slanderous accusation before his friends/family (with possible legal consequences). Her rights were protected by this very ceremony. This was a very, very advanced pro-women procedure for those times.

    By comparison, in the other law codes of that time, ANYONE could accuse her and force her to undergo the River Ordeal(!). So, the Laws of Ur-Nammu, 14 [ca. 2100bc, Ur in Sumer]: "If a man accuses the wife of a young man of promiscuity but the River Ordeal clears her..." (LCMAM:18).

    And the proof of virginity is the same thing--a protection.
    The examples given as evidence for a double-standard are simply too weak to support such a conclusion. On the other hand, we have TONS of passages that support (1) a much greater emphasis on male fidelity and (2) preferential treatment for women in disputes of this nature.

    The 10 commandments SINGLE OUT the male (Ex 20.17b)...
    in cases of rape, the woman is given the benefit of the doubt (Lev 19.20ff; Deut 22.25-27)...
    and is protected from disastrous marriages from those (Ex 22.16)...
    in cases of adultery, BOTH parties were killed--a fact noted by authors as being a 'step forward' at that time (Lev 20.10-12)...
    the male is CONSISTENTLY singled out for admonition in this area (Lev 18; Deut 27; Jer 5.7; Ezek 18.6; 22.10ff)...
    even the case of female war captives was regulated for the male! (Deut 21.11)...
    in some cases women were "excused from guilt" because of the guilt of the men! (Hos 4.14ff)...
    And remember, this "inequality" AGAINST the male would had to have involved a female--but they do not get 'equal time' in the warnings/admonitions! They are often simply assumed to be more righteous in this area (cf. The "benefit of the doubt" passages above).

    Again, the data is simply otherwise--IF there is a double-standard, THEN it is "against" the men! So quit with your out of context whining.
    Rex

  • Silverleaf
    Silverleaf

    And if wishes were horses, beggers would ride.

    Silverleaf

  • Moxy
    Moxy

    what about the women that gets her hands cut off because she intervened in a struggle between her husband and another man by crushing the other mans testes?

    umm.. im not sure what my point was, but i want to meet the woman that could break up a fight between 2 guys by CRUSHING HIS BALLS WITH HER BARE HANDS!! handless or not. apparently this kind of tussle was so common they had to write a whole law to cover it.

    mox

  • Seeker
    Seeker

    "Here you go, kids, I made a nice, delicious, wholesome pizza for dinner. What's that? You don't like the rats and bugs I put on top? That's totally unfair of you! Why, look at the delicious cheese and tomato sauce! Aren't those good things? Doesn't the inclusion of those good things totally negate the other bad things?"

  • Norm
    Norm

    Have you been cutting and pasting from some web page again, Rex?

    The problem isn’t so much how the women was treated in ancient times, but you fundies who want to freeze society as it was back then and are always ranting on about a “return” to those Biblical “values”.

    Anyway, the Bible starts out straight away:

    *** Rbi8 Genesis 3:16 ***
    16 To the woman he said: “I shall greatly increase the pain of your pregnancy; in birth pangs you will bring forth children, and your craving will be for your husband, and he will dominate you.”

    As you can see the men was ordained by God to “dominate” women

    As we have documented ad nauseam here on this forum women were considered little more than cattle in “old Testament” Biblical time. But the lunatic Paul wasn’t much better:

    *** Rbi8 1 Corinthians 11:6 ***
    6 For if a woman does not cover herself, let her also be shorn; but if it is disgraceful for a woman to be shorn or shaved, let her be covered.

    *** Rbi8 1 Corinthians 11:7-9 ***
    7 For a man ought not to have his head covered, as he is God’s image and glory; but the woman is man’s glory. 8 For man is not out of woman, but woman out of man; 9 and, what is more, man was not created for the sake of the woman, but woman for the sake of the man.

    *** Rbi8 1 Corinthians 14:33-35 ***
    As in all the congregations of the holy ones, 34 let the women keep silent in the congregations, for it is not permitted for them to speak, but let them be in subjection, even as the Law says. 35 If, then, they want to learn something, let them question their own husbands at home, for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in a congregation.

    *** Rbi8 1 Timothy 2:11-14 ***
    11 Let a woman learn in silence with full submissiveness. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach, or to exercise authority over a man, but to be in silence. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 Also, Adam was not deceived, but the woman was thoroughly deceived and came to be in transgression.

    Real lovely “values” eh, Rex?

    Norm

  • Rex B13
    Rex B13

    Perhaps all of you could answer the post directly the info within, instead of hijacking the thread?
    Rex

  • Trilobite
    Trilobite

    Rex,

    Here's a particularly faith strengthening example of women's rights:

    *** Rbi8 Judges 19:22-30 ***

    22 While they were making their hearts feel good, look! the men of the city, mere good-for-nothing men, surrounded the house, shoving one another against the door; and they kept saying to the old man, the owner of the house: "Bring out the man that came into your house, that we may have intercourse with him." 23 At that the owner of the house went on out to them and said to them: "No, my brothers, do not do anything wrong, please, since this man has come into my house. Do not commit this disgraceful folly. 24 Here are my virgin daughter and his concubine. Let me bring them out, please, and YOU rape them and do to them what is good in YOUR eyes. But to this man YOU must not do this disgraceful, foolish thing."

    25 And the men did not want to listen to him. Hence the man took hold of his concubine and brought her forth to them outside; and they began to have intercourse with her, and kept on abusing her all night long until the morning, after which they sent her off at the ascending of the dawn. 26 Then the woman came as it was turning to morning, and fell down at the entrance of the man's house where her master was,-until daylight. 27 Later her master rose up in the morning and opened the doors of the house and went out to get on his way, and, look! the woman, his concubine, fallen at the entrance of the house with her hands upon the threshold! 28 So he said to her: "Rise up, and let us go." But there was no one answering. At that the man took her upon the ass and rose up and went to his place.

    29 Then he entered his house and took the slaughtering knife and laid hold of his concubine and cut her up according to her bones into twelve pieces and sent her into every territory of Israel. 30 And it occurred that everybody seeing it said: "Such a thing as this has never been brought about or been seen from the day that the sons of Israel went up out of the land of Egypt down to this day. Set YOUR hearts upon it, take counsel and speak."

    I was most impressed that not only was this Levite dude able to hand over his concubine but he was then, apparently, able to go to bed and get a good night's sleep. A most Lot-ish thing to do, don't you think?

    T.

  • Rex B13
    Rex B13

    Hi Norm the Norwig,
    Why do you keep coming back to be abused like this? I see that you have still not progressed in the knowledge of Biblical exgesis and research, but continue to labor under the context twisitng lack of understanding that is so prevalent amongst the Watchtower Society. Here's some research for you to ponder:

    The church at Corinth was the specific topic of Paul's letters. He was dealing with a SPECIFIC situation, as was the disfellowhip issue with the man who was committing incest. The Corinthians were undergoing some serious problems relating to abuses of the Lord's Supper, speaking in tongues, etc and the problem happened to be with a certain number of women who were leading the rest astray. Only a jdub would contend that women absolutely HAVE to wear a head covering to pray and that women cannot pray with men present. That is stupid and I have never seen this as a practice anywhere else!
    There is a specific with regard to women not being pastors but much of Christianity rejects this as factual, some do, some don't. Women play a role in the church just as men do. Also, you continue to deny the equality through submission: Christ is submissive to the Father; the church and man are submissive to Christ, women are submissive to their husbands but ONLY IN CHRIST. It is not, nor has ever been a reason to disreguard women as spiritual equals of men. It is a rule of orderliness that is proven to work in CHRISTIAN HOUSEHOLDS, something you would know nothing about.
    Paul is often maligned HEAVILY as being this quintessentially-Talmudic misogynist throwback, who set women's gains under Jesus back 2-3 centuries...but this is SO FAR from the truth...
    Just to show how off this mis-conception is nowadays, let me quote from Rosemary Reuther (a very outspoken feminist theologian) who is drawing upon Elizabeth Fiorenza (a very outspoken feminist theologian). Neither of these could REMOTELY be called 'apologetically inclined' toward Paul(!):
    "It is generally assumed that Paul is the author of a Christianity of female subordination. But more recent studies have shown that the historical Paul in fact continued most of the assumptions and practices of early charismatic, inclusive Christianity. Indeed, most of the New Testament evidence that women functioned as local leaders, as well as traveling evangelists, is to be found in the Pauline letters. Paul addresses almost an equal number of women along with men (sixteen women and eighteen men) in his greetings to Church leaders in Romans 16. He mentions two women, Euodia and Syntche, as having preached the gospel "with Barnabas and me" in Philippians 4:2-3. He addresses a woman name Junia by the title of "apostle," and constantly refers to the husband and wife team, Priscilla and Aquila, as "Church leaders," usually naming Priscilla first. He also speaks of the prominent woman Phoebe by the title of both "deacon" and "prostasis" or leader, of her community.
    Paul received from the early Church both a practice of thus including women in the ministries of catechesis, prophecy, local Church leadership, and traveling evangelism (the role Paul calls that of "apostle"), and also a baptismal theology of male-female equivalence in Christ as reflected in the Galatians 3:28 reference. This formula was not original with Paul; he cites it from early Christian tradition. The Galatians baptismal text expresses the early Christian vision of the new humanity in Christ. It was consciously moulded to contrast with the traditions of rabbinic piety, adapted from Hellenistic philosophy, in which the Jewish male thanks God for having been born male and not female, free and not slave, and Jew rather than Gentile. By declaring that in Christ these divisions had been overcome and all these groups made "one," the early Christian stated the essence of his or her new identity as one where the equivalence of all humans in the image of God had been restored." (WS:WWR:212-213)
    [Note--the 'recent studies' Reuther refers to are works by Fiorenza...]
    The data we discover about Paul shows that in every way he was as "liberated" in his actual treatment and teaching re:women as was Jesus. But Paul actually goes beyond this--he (as a human) can label women as 'fellow-workers' with him--a 'peer' statement from the great Apostle to the Gentiles.
    As Reuther/Fiorenza note above, Paul was VERY 'inclusive' in his views--women were leaders, were co-workers, were patrons, were deacons, were apostles, were emissaries, were official delegates, were prophets, were prayer warriors, were leaders of house churches. He "allowed"(!) women to pray and prophesy in church (e.g. I Cor 11.5) and called on them to disciple leading men (Priscilla and Apollos). He addresses NT epistles to them (e.g. Philp) and entrusts NT epistles to their care (e.g. Romans).
    As the apostle Peter noted in 2 Pet 3.15-16, Paul writes some things that are 'hard to understand'! He has passages which will probably always remain obscure (i.e. the head-covering passage?), and many passages that are exegetically baffling. The 'female silence' passages ('I do not allow a woman to teach' and 'women should keep silent in the churches') fall in these categories. The fact that Paul obviously allows women to speak in the churches ("pray and prophecy") and that prophecy was considered every bit as authoritative and as a teaching-practice as "official" instruction, should tip us off that something else is going on in those two texts. Exegetes from all persuasions have identified a number of options that remove the 'clash' with his less ambiguous (1) apostolic praxis and (2) other passages in his teaching corpus. It still remains which option will surface as a consensus option among students of Paul.
    In any event, Paul comes off as quite 'liberated' --esp. for his Pharisaic upbringing! The stereotype of a female-hating, women-subjugating, Christian "Rabbi Judah" just cannot be objectively maintained anymore.
    No, Paul understood their potential contributions to the cause of His precious Lord--their passion, their commitment, their love for the Desire of All Nations--and did not hesitate to worship with them and "put them to work alongside him" in His apostolic mission...

    The data is quite otherwise--the early church was PROBABLY dominantly female!
    There several indications of this, in the data (NT, archeology, extrabiblical lit, sociology):
    Numerically, they were a minority in the Greeco-Roman world, but a majority in the pre-Constantine church.
    One of the earliest pieces of 'high literature' the church produced--the gospel of Luke--was CLEARLY written with women readership in mind.
    Outside Palestine, Christianity was a "cult" (Galen called it a "philosophical school"!). Cults have ALWAYS spread first through the intelligentsia, and intelligentsia are always closely aligned with patrons. And patrons were mostly women in that day and age...
    The records of the earliest sites and house-churches feature prominent women leaders.
    The earliest pagan reference to Christian leadership (e.g. Pliny) is to women deacons, who were tortured for their faith.
    Early paintings and mosaics show females as a large part of Christian gatherings.
    Women Christians outlived their non-Christian counterparts by DECADES--due to the Christian ethics around abortion, later marriage, non-forced remarriage, medical care-giving...
    Early and Late Church Fathers refer to the large number of women in the church, AND TO their effectiveness at bringing their husbands 'into the fold'.
    We have already noted in many places the widespread female representation in early church leadership positions.
    Even widow-care was an early Christian priority! (Acts 6).
    The church was known to attract a high number of high-status women to its ranks.
    The early church was VERY MUCH "inclusive" of females--indeed, females CONSTITUTED a very large (maybe even majority) of the early church. They were a part of the Body of Christ and part of the leadership of that community.

    Rex

  • Rex B13
    Rex B13

    Hey Trilobyte,
    Have you done any research into the historical traditions of the middle east? This passage, and the one about Lot's daughters speaks to how important the safety of one's guest was in those days. Guests are still of prime importance in an arab's household.
    Unlike most other ancient texts, the Bible shows all of the warts of it's characters.

    However, I want to probe the passage slightly farther, for it has always bothered/puzzled me. Lot is mentioned in the NT as a righteous man, tormented psychologically by the behavior of the people in the city of his dwelling--2 Peter 2.7. This situation obviously produced quite a fragmented spirituality in Lot, since the characteristics that he manifests in the Genesis narratives are FAR from complimentary--he picks his land choice selfishly and foolishly, lives in constant compromise with the inhabitants of Sodom, hesitates in leaving the city, changes his mind about living in Zoar and flees in fear to a cave, gets drunk repeatedly, etc. It may be the case (as most commentators believe) that Lot's offer of his virgin daughters to the men of Sodom was a similar huge character flaw or failure of nerve. Some, however, attempt to explain (not excuse) the severity of this by arguing about how important protection of one's guest was in the culture of the day. Hospitality was of course the norm (as would prompt such an action of offering one's virgin daughters) in the Law Codes of the times. (This is not altogether surprising, since Law Codes were produced in larger population centers, which generally had inns. The codes have many passages dealing with innkeepers, for example. See LCMAM for details.) There seems to be something else going on in the text. Notice: (1) Lot emphasizes that his daughters are virgins; (2) his daughters are pledged to be married; (3) the future sons-in-law seem to be in the crowd(!); (4) he uses a moral word for 'wickedness' and an ambiguous word for 'good'; (5) he is well known to the city (he sits in the Gate); (6) they accuse him of trying to 'judge' them. One possible understanding of Lot's action here could be this: Lot was reminding the men of how bad their planned action was, by offering them a theoretical alternative--which WAS contained in virtually all Law Codes of the day--the violation of a virgin pledged to be married was a VERY EXPENSIVE CRIME, monetarily. (In Israel, it would be punishable by death or forced marriage.) By confronting them with this alternative, perhaps he was trying to divert their attention onto the 'evil' of the other alternative (by comparing it with the evil of abusing the daughters). Also, it is distinctly possible that the appeal to the crowd about the daughters was designed to provoke some response from the future sons-in-law, which from all indications in the text, WERE IN THAT CROWD! Perhaps he had a hope to divide the crowd and so escape the situation. In any event, it is sufficient for our purposes to note that his action was precluded by the Angels, in an act of judgment on the crowd.

    Let's get back tot he original question:
    The Levite and his concubine (Jud 19f). This is one of the most abnormal passages in scripture. It is so filled with aberrations of ethics and law, and is specifically INTENDED to show how EVIL Israel had become during the period of the Judges! But even in this weird story, one can still see glimmers of a 'better' ethic from the Law. Consider first some of the 'weirdness' of this passage:

    An unnamed Levite marries a concubine OUTSIDE his tribe (19.1).
    This priest is polygamous!
    She is unfaithful (but is not killed).
    The Levite over-parties with the father.
    There was no hospitality in the square in Gibeah.
    The scenario of Sodom repeats--some 'wicked men' surround the house and demand to be allowed to sexually abuse one of the two male guests.
    The "old man" (the house-owner) offers them his virgin daughter (age unspecified, but presumably older) and the man's concubine for their "entertainment".
    The wicked men refuse, but the Old Man pushes the concubine out (not his daughter!)
    They rape and kill her.
    The Levite callously, without ANY sign of affection or grief, hauls her home, cuts her up into pieces (becoming unclean in the process), and mails her to all Israel.
    When all Israel gathers in outrage (they apparently took issue with the rape, but not the offering by the OLD MAN?!), the Levite tells a 'white-washed' version of the story. This version omits the pushing of the concubine out the door, and the attempted 'exchange' of the victims for females.
    The Levite rightly condemns the wicked men of Gibeah, but accepts NO blame for himself or the Old Man.
    The tribes of Israel are outraged at this rape (showing that the female--even a concubine-- was still valued highly by the majority).
    The tribe of Benjamin will NOT turn over the wicked men--they obviously don't have the same sense of ethics as does the majority.
    War ensues.
    Now, there are a few important points from this of relevance to my thesis here:
    The violation of the concubine was NOT approved by Israel, EVEN UNDER the assumption of the potential murder of the priest (20.4-11). Indeed, it was called 'vileness'.
    The obvious linkage of this story to that of Sodom is to HIGHLIGHT the exceptional character of this incident--it is NOT NORMAL for Israel.
    This horrible event was remembered for centuries as being a "low water mark" for Israel. (cf. Hosea 9.9: They have sunk deep into corruption, as in the days of Gibeah.)

    The questionable ethical character of the Old Man, and of the Levite, certainly doesn't suggest the thought that they are representative of all Israel in this matter.
    I have to conclude that the outrage of Israel actually supports a 'higher view' of female value, than the 'lower view' seemingly exemplified by the Old Man.
    Perhaps you atheist, Christian bashers could do SOME OF YOUR OWN RESEARCH on occasion, instead fo smugly asking questions that have already been answered ad anuseum?

    Rex

  • comment
    comment

    You know what?

    Who cares about the "paternalistic society" and "context" and "historical traditions" of the Middle East?

    Fundamentalist Christians pound on and on about how the Bible is God's inerrant Word, about how its counsel is so TIMELESS.

    They tell us that various prohibitions on blood, diet, sexual practices and the like are all to be taken oh-so-literally, as if those prohibitions had been issued just yesterday, with no regard whatsoever for context.

    But when the barbaric and primitive aspects of the Bible are brought to light by others (such as the treatment and view of women), then all of a sudden it's endless apologetics: "Well, remember the Middle Eastern context" and "The Israelites were better than some other nations who blah blah blah."

    Was it a question of God being more stupid back then? If he's all he's claimed to be, the Israelites should have been FAR AHEAD of their neighbors, not just a little less primitive (i.e. yes, I own her, but only stone her to death under certain conditions).

    Our loving Heavenly Father apparently needed to be dragged into the modern era himself. Because based solely on His Word, we'd still be living with the dumbness of Deuteronomy today.

    comment

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