Im new to the forum, although I have been here reading it for the last few months. Ill give you a breif history of myself before I go on to asking my question. I grew up with a JW and his wife living in my parents basement suite. I was only 11 at the time but I grew up in a Christian family. Well me and my buddy the JW downstairs got along really well, he always had me down for pizza and video games etc. Then we started talking religion. Ya real fair eh, a 26 year old talking to an 11 year old about JW doctrine. Well I was young and he showed me things in my own bible that made the trinity seem like it was false. To make a long story short I followed their doctrine till i was 21 arguing for the last 10 years with my family how JW's are right etc etc, till I decided to take their advice and look into the watchtower history. After learning about their predictions and doctrine changes I knew the Watchower was not led by God. Now I am still really close with my JW buddy, but I am starting to talk to him about things he hasnt been told about in the bible, and here is where my question lies.
We have been talking about the word "worship" in the bible, and I pointed out that since 1954 when the NWT came out, they have changed the word worship to obeisance only when referring to Jesus. I pretty much stumped him on this and I was shocked he didnt have an answer for me, but he came back to me with an answer. His answer was that in the greek the actual word was "obeisance" and that the word "proskuneo" (sp?) really meant obeisance rather than worship. He also mentioned that proskuneo has different meanings though spelled the same, could mean something different. EX) I duck down to hide when I was about to shoot the duck. His example was trying to show me that even though a word was spelled the same, it could have a different meaning. Basically Im just wondering if anyone has other info on this, how can I refute what he is saying, and maybe come back with some hard info that may stump him again.