What does Acts 15 mean, people "called by my name"? Help needed!

jwfacts

Is this referring to Jehovah or Jesus? I am in discussion with someone and need an answer that would satisfy a thick skulled JW.

In the NWT it says

(Acts 15:15-18) 15

And with this the words of the Prophets agree, just as it is written, 16 ‘After these things I shall return and rebuild the booth of David that is fallen down; and I shall rebuild its ruins and erect it again, 17 in order that those who remain of the men may earnestly seek Jehovah, together with people of all the nations, people who are called by my name, says Jehovah, who is doing these things, 18 known from of old.’

The WTS says this obviously means Jehovah's Witnesses. Since they have added the word Jehovah it would appear so. However since the original documents use the word Lord it could be Jesus. I can not work out from the context how to prove what it should be.

KJ puts it this way"And to this agree the words of the prophets; as it is written, After this I will return, and will build again the tabernacle of David, which is fallen down; and I will build again the ruins thereof, and I will set it up: That the residue of men might seek after the Lord, and all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, saith the Lord, who doeth all these things."

Anyone have a good answer?

Elsewhere

upon whom my name is called, saith the Lord

people who are called by my name, says Jehovah

Wow! Those are two totally different translations with totally different meanings!

Sounds like the WTS twisted the scripture to suit their teachings.

ferret

New Testament is referring to Jesus.

jwfacts

This is what the concordance says from the blue letter bible

That	[3704]	hopos
(with Strongs #)	[302]	an
the residue	[2645]	kataloipos
of men	[444]	anthropos
might seek after	[1567]	ekzeteo
the Lord,	[2962]	kurios
and	[2532]	kai
all	[3956]	pas
the Gentiles,	[1484]	ethnos
upon	[1909]	epi
whom	[3739]	hos
my	[3450]	mou
name	[3686]	onoma
is called	[1941]	epikaleomai
(with Strongs #)	[1909]	epi
(with Strongs #)	[846]	autos
saith	[3004]	lego
the Lord,	[2962]	kurios
who	[3588]	ho
doeth	[4160]	poieo
all	[3956]	pas
these things.

Strongs adds "the cause or reason named: on this account, because he suffers as a Christian, for this reason"

I am just not sure that a JW would even accept that Strongs says this is about Christ. So am wondering if there is anything in the context or cross references to identify it as Jesus.

BlackSwan of Memphis

ferret is right.

Interestingly, it is within the book of Acts (can't remember the chapter) that the followers of The Way are first called Christian.

meagan

Narkissos

Apparently in Acts 15 "God" is meant:

The whole assembly kept silence, and listened to Barnabas and Paul as they told of all the signs and wonders that God had done through them among the Gentiles. After they finished speaking, James replied, "My brothers, listen to me. Simeon has related how God first looked favorably on the Gentiles, to take from among them a people for his name.
This agrees with the words of the prophets, as it is written,
'After this I will return,
and I will rebuild the dwelling of David, which has fallen;
from its ruins I will rebuild it,
and I will set it up,
so that all other peoples may seek the Lord--
even all the Gentiles over whom my name has been called.
Thus says the Lord, who has been making these things
known from long ago.'
Therefore I have reached the decision that we should not trouble those Gentiles who are turning to God...

But elsewhere in Acts the divine use of kurios in the LXX can be applied to Jesus as well (much like in Paul), e.g. 2:20ff:

The sun shall be turned to darkness
and the moon to blood,
before the coming of the Lord's great and glorious day.
Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.'
(...)
For David did not ascend into the heavens, but he himself says,
'The Lord said to my Lord,
"Sit at my right hand,
until I make your enemies your footstool." '
Therefore let the entire house of Israel know with certainty that God has made him both Lord and Messiah, this Jesus whom you crucified."

Honesty

Acts 15:15-18 And the words of the prophets agree with this, as it is written: After these things I will return and will rebuild David’s tent, which has fallen down. I will rebuild its ruins and will set it up again, so that those who are left of mankind may seek the Lord— even all the Gentiles who are called by My name, says the Lord who does these things, which have been known from long ago.

Acts 11:25-26 Then he went to Tarsus to search for Saul, and when he found him he brought him to Antioch. For a whole year they met with the church and taught large numbers, and the disciples were first called Christians in Antioch.

stillajwexelder

Christians

MerryMagdalene

Was there not a certain amount of diversity in the Old Testament among those who were to be "called by His name"? In Isaiah chapter 43:6,7 it says--

I will say 559 to the north, 6828 Give up; 5414 and to the south, 8486 Keep not back: 3607, 408 bring 935 my sons 1121 from far, 4480, 7350 and my daughters 1323 from the ends 4480, 7097 of the earth; 776 Even every one3605 that is called7121 by my name:8034

Then later, in Isaiah 44:5--

One 2088 shall say, 559 I 589 am the LORD's; 3068 and another 2088 shall call 7121 himself by the name 8034 of Jacob; 3290 and another 2088 shall subscribe 3789 with his hand 3027 unto the LORD, 3068 and surname 3655 himself by the name 8034 of Israel. 3478

And there are also scriptures that speak of the temple as being called by God's name-- Jeremiah 7:10,11-- and the city being called by God's name-- Jeremiah 25:29. This would indicate to me that even though they were actually called by other names, they were known as belonging to this particular God. So, in the New Testament, the same principle would apply, wouldn't it?. Christians are "called by His name" in the sense that they are known to belong to this same God.

~Merry

jwfacts

Good answers thanks.

This is very confusing. No wonder the Trinity evolved from the teachings of the New Testament. The words for God and Lord are used interchangeably for both the Father and the Son, and Old Testaments quotes referring to Jehovah are also applied to both Father and Son.

Is this proof that the Father and Son are one and the same?

What does Acts 15 mean, people "called by my name"? Help needed!

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