Is the Watchtower loyal to the Bible?
The Watchtower Society, always claim that if there's a disagreement between what they call Biblical Chronology and secular chronology they take the side of the Bible.
This sounds very nice, but is it really so? First of all, to claim that there is disharmony between secular and Biblical chronology is false. It is creating a false dilemma. It is creating confusion in the mind of the unsuspecting Witness. In particular regarding the "neo Babylonian" chronology, where there is complete harmony between the relative chronology of the Bible and the absolute secular chronology.
In the real world the dividing lines are drawn between the well-documented secular and Biblical chronology, and the totally unfounded and unsupported Watchtower chronology.
I will now present facts about how far the Watchtower are willing to go, what they are ready to do, to make their precious fabricated chronology to appear "true". They have absolutely no scruples with changing Bible text's to save their unfounded speculation, which is based on the idea that the destruction of Jerusalem took place in 607 BCE.
Maybe the most serious examples of this we find in the book "Babylon the Great has Fallen" published in 1963. In this book the most incredible acrobatics are performed in order to preserve the precious
Watchtower chronology. Take a look at this:
"Zion Clashes with Babylon
It was at that time that the young Daniel and three special companions were taken exile to Babylon. In Daniel 1:1 he writes about it: "In the third year of the kingship of Jehoiakim the king of Judah, Nebuchadnezzar the king of Babylon came to Jerusalem and proceeded to lay siege to it." Babylon the Great has fallen, 1963, page 136.
This text in Daniel 1:1 strikes a devastating blow to the Watchtower chronology, so therefore its meaning must be altered at all cost's. Take a look at this fantastic piece of reasoning that follows:
" This was after King Jehoiakim had rebelled against the king of Babylon, after being a vassal for about three years. Hence the expression "in the third year of the kingship of Jehoiakim the king of Judah" means in the third year of Jehoiakim as a vassal king paying tribute to Babylon. Since his vassalage began after he reigned eight years in Jerusalem, this third year of his reign as Babylon's vassal would be the eleventh year of his entire reign at Jerusalem and would be due to end by the Jewish lunar calendar on Adar 29, 617 BCE., or March 19, 617 BCE." Babylon the Great has Fallen, 1963, page 136.
Here we can see the Watchtowers "loyalty" to the Bible when a simple text "MUST" mean something else than what it say's. Here Brooklyn had to tell the readers what Daniel, the poor bungler "really meant". He couldn't get anything right, after all he was just one of Jehovah's prophets and he was there at the time, so what did he know about Nebuchadnezzar and when he reigned?
Another fact we have to take into consideration it that when you have been appointed Jesus "slave" since 1919, you are entitled to alter the Bible as you see fit. Especially if it doesn't support your own chronology. But what is it about the Society's chronology that makes the alteration of Bible texts necessary? This becomes even more apparent when the "Babylon book" comes to the text in Daniel 2:1, which states:
"And in the second year of the kingship of Nebuchadnezzar, Nebuchadnezzar dreamed dreams; and his spirit began to feel agitated, and his very sleep was made to be something beyond him."
Here Daniel states simple and clear that he was indeed present in Babylon in Nebuchadnezzar's second year of kingship. But this would of course ruin the Society's chronology completely, so therefore this Bible text HAS TO mean something else. According to the Watchtower chronology Nebuchadnezzar was crowned as king in 625, and Daniel wasn't taken into exile before 612, 8 years later. Therefore it becomes so important for the Watchtower that Daniel couldn't have been in Babylon when he himself say's he was. This Bible text therefore HAS TO mean something else then what is written there.
The Watchtower, when confronted with these two texts has a clear choice. Both of these texts clearly prove that their own chronology isn't in harmony with the Bible. What do they do? Are they true to the Bible and change their chronology? The facts show what choice the Watchtower Society made. The same choice they always do when it stands between the Bible and their own teachings. They choose their own teachings over the Bibles. Just look at what the Babylon book say:
"Waiting in Exile for Babylon's Fall
How, then, shall we understand the statement in Daniel 2:1? It reads: "And in the second year of the kingship of Nebuchadnezzar,… However, the most reasonable and fitting suggestion is that this refers to the "second year" from a marked event, namely, from Nebuchadnezzar's destruction of Jerusalem in 607 B.C. Babylon the Great has Fallen, 1963, page 172.
Notice the phrase: "the most reasonable and fitting suggestion". The most "reasonable and fitting suggestion" for whom? Why does this Bible text need any "suggestions" at all? Where is the need for any explanations at all about the very simple fact that Daniel himself states that he himself was PRESENT in Babylon in the second year of Nebuchadnezzar's reign? What makes such an operation at all necessary? Only because of the Watchtower Society's own chronology do they have to come up with a "reasonable and fitting" way of muddling the clear statements of the Bible. To whom is the Watchtower showing loyalty? Is it the Bible? When the prophet Daniel under “inspiration” say the he himself was present in Babylon during the second year of Nebuchadnezzar's reign, the Watchtower trough some fantastic acrobatics of rewriting the Bible want us to believe that this was really in the twentieth year of Nebuchadnezzar's reign! Is this the Society idea of standing on the side of the Bible?
If we should take the Watchtower Society's far-fetched reasoning serious we would come into conflict with several other Bible texts. For example Jeremiah 25:1
"The word that occurred to Jeremiah concerning all the people of Judah in the fourth year of Je•hoi'a•kim the son of Jo•si'ah, the king of Judah, that is, the first year of Neb•u•chad•rez'zar the king of Babylon;"
(That Daniel 1:1 say the "third year" , while Jeremiah say the fourth year, are due to the fact that Daniel counted whole years of reign, but Jeremiah counts the accession year even though it wasn't a full year. Nebuchadnezzar was crowned as king the first of Nisan in 605, his first whole year was therefore 604 .) When according to Jeremiah, Je•hoi'a•kim the king of Judah's fourth year (third whole year) was
Nebuchadnezzar's first year and when Daniel 1:1 say's that Nebuchadnezzar came and lay siege to Jerusalem and took captives , among those Daniel according to verse 6:
"Now there happened to be among them some of the sons of Judah, Daniel, Han•a•ni'ah, Mish'a•el and Az•a•ri'ah." Daniel 1:6.
Then we have the Bible stating that Daniel really was present in Babylon in the second year of Nebuchadnezzar's reign! Not in his twentieth year as the Society will have us believe.
Here we have got an excellent demonstration of the kind of respect the Watchtower has for the Bible.
The self appointed prophet in Brooklyn the great F&DS treats the Bible as they see fit. They own the "truth" and therefore they define what is truth. It seems to be their private property.
But how about those texts that we have been touching upon here? Can a satisfactory explanation be found? Yes, if we want to explore the very solid documentation, which exist regarding the neo Babylonian chronology that is in harmony with the Biblical. According to this chronology Nebuchadnezzar conquered Jerusalem in 605 BCE, and took away among others Daniel and his 3 friends. If you investigate this chronology you don't have to massacre Daniel 1:1 and 2:1 to make it fit a completely constructed chronology because then Daniel really was present in Babylon in the second year of Nebuchadnezzar's reign!
Considering that Nebuchadnezzar's first whole year of reign was 604, his 18th year of reign. (19th year, if counted from his accession year 605, like the Jew's did, cr. Jer. 52:12) would 587 BCE, be the year he destroyed Jerusalem , which is confirmed by both secular and Biblical chronology.
Well, where in the Bible do you find it stated that Jerusalem was destroyed in 587, some may ask?
This isn't surprising. The overwhelming evidence that supports the year 587, are effectively kept away from rank and file Jehovah's Witnesses. Lets us look at some real good evidence, which is accidentally given, in the Watchtowers own literature, and where we again get a good demonstration of how little Brooklyn care about the Bible. We find this in the book "Paradise restored, from 1972, where the texts in Zechariah 1: 7-12 is discussed. According to verse 7, Zechariah had this vision in the second year of the reign of Darius. The book points to the fact that this was happening in 519 BCE Let us look at the Bible text:
"And they proceeded to answer the angel of Jehovah who was standing among the myrtle trees and to say: "We have walked about in the earth, and, look! The whole earth is sitting still and having no disturbance." So the angel of Jehovah answered and said: "O Jehovah of armies, how long will you yourself not show mercy to Jerusalem and to the cities of Judah, whom you have denounced these seventy years?" Zechariah 1:11-12.
As mentioned above, the Paradise Restored book dates this vision to the year 519 BCE. At that time
Jehovah had denounced Jerusalem and the cities of Judah for 70 years:
"No wonder that, back there in 519 BCE, the angelic scouts reported the whole earth as without disturbance!" Paradise Restored. 1972, page 128.
So far, so good. But let us see what happens next. Is the Watchtower writes satisfied with the fact that in 519 B.C.E Jehovah had been denouncing, Jerusalem and the cities of Judah for 70 years? No way, this had to be explained away, and now it really gets pathetic:
"Mercy to the Persecuted but Judgment to Persecutors
So did Jehovah's angel mean that those seventy years had not yet ended, or that they had just now ended? This could not historically be true." Paradise Restored. 1972, page 131.
Believe it or not it gets worse, the book continues on page 132:
"... ,why would the angel, knowing what he did, speak as he did? Since he knew that the time period was definitely seventy years long, why would he say: "O Jehovah of armies, how long?" Paradise Restored. 1972, page 132.
Yes, why indeed? Why should this angel make such problems for the Society's precious chronology about the year 607? What Jehovah's angel said couldn't: "HISTORICALLY BE TRUE"!! Hey folks, an angel whose words are recorded in the Bible cant be TRUE! Dear oh dear. No, how can we expect that any old angel should have a clue what he talks about? Why couldn't this troublesome angel keep his mouth shut and stop creating such embarrassment for the Society's chronology?
Well, what the angel said makes perfect sense and was in full harmony with history if you consider it in the light of the "secular/Biblical chronology". But as demonstrated here, truth and facts are without any interest whatsoever for the Watchtower Society. To them the continued existence of a totally unfounded chronology is far more important. Why is it of such outmost importance for the Watchtower to create the impression that this angel was talking trough his hat? Well, if you count 70 years from the year 519 BCE, you will end at the year 589 BCE, when the final siege of Jerusalem started, exactly as this terrible "secular" chronology states. And now this impertinent angel and consequently the Bible confirm that this is correct! But it doesn't stop here. When the "Paradise Restored" book attacks the texts at Zechariah 7: 1-5, they really take off. Here we get another sterling example of the Watchtowers "loyalty" to the Bible.
Here we get another clear date: "Darius fourth year". When his second year was 519 BCE, his fourth year must be 517 BCE, at this time the Jew's had "fasted" and "wailed" for "seventy years" according to verse 5:
"Say to all the people of the land and to the priests, 'When YOU fasted and there was a wailing in the fifth [month] and in the seventh [month], and this for seventy years, did YOU really fast to me, even me?" Zechariah 7:5.
Interestingly enough the "Paradise Restored" book admits on page 235:
"Fasting over God's Executed Judgments Improper
It was observed evidently on the tenth day of that month (Ab), in order to commemorate how on that day Nebuzaradan, the chief of Nebuchadnezzar's bodyguard, after two days of inspection, burned down the city of Jerusalem and its temple."
Paradise Restored 1972, page 235.
So what does the Society do now? Do they let this text stand? Do they calculate 70 years back from 517 BCE to the year 587 BCE:, when Jerusalem was burned? No of course not! Instead they dedicate several pages to explaining away and create a smokescreen for their loyal readers. Instead of taking into consideration the obvious harmony between the secular dates provided by themselves in the book and the Bible texts, they desperately cling to their pet 607 year, even if it means that the Jew's then had been fasting and wailing, not as the Bible said, for 70 years, but for 90 years!
This gives us an excellent lesson about how a speculative calculation, completely without any foundation whatsoever gets elevated to be a dogma. How it becomes an eternal "truth" that have to be defended at all costs. It is also an extremely good example of how efficient propaganda works. Just hammer on about 607, and 1914, and it becomes a "truth", which only "opposers" and "apostates" could dream of questioning. What an excellent example of how to con millions of people for years!
For all their boasting about being the “only ones” who really stick to the Bible, we se how far that goes when the Bible become bothersome for them.
Norm.
