I have been doing a lot of thinking lately and have pretty much come to the conclusion that all of the prophecies concerning the last days were fulfilled in the 1st century. That explanation is the only one that makes sense. The generation of Matt. 24:34 literally saw the end of the Jewish system of things, there was a period when they cried "peace and security" after the Romans retreated in 66-70 CE, there is evidence that there were wars, earthquakes, celestial phenomena, famines etc. all between 33 CE and 70 CE. The preaching work was completed across the whole earth as shown in Acts.
The Watchtower Study yesterday quoted Acts 2:16,17. Peter clearly stated that Joel's prophecy was fulfilled at Pentecost 33 CE. In Peter's own wordsthose were the last days.
Also when you look at when the scriptures were written, all of the warnings about the end times were written before 70 CE with the exception of John's writings. There is a pretty good case to make that John's letters and revelation are simply misdated. How else can you explain the silence of the bible record since the 1st century? If there was to be a second fulfillment would there not be additional inspired writings? (not spirit directed, but inspired)
I think that many people read into the bible what they want to see. They want to see the wicked destroyed, and conditions to be better. When you have a desired outcome it becomes easy to interpret the Scriptures to your own time to match up with what you wish to see happen.
Jw's and other denominations have been trying to twist and bend the prophecies that were fulfilled 2,000 years ago to fit modern times. It simply will not happen. Parts of history are bound to repeat itself but as a whole the end times prophecies were clearly and completely fulfilled in the 1st century.
What are your thoughts?
SIAM