Where to I begin? Well, the Spirit has led me to respond to the issues raised by Sacolton, first, since they are the briefest (f or some reason, my formatting doesn't always present as I intend, so I ask your patience). I am to respond to Chalam, next, then Lampstand, then to Javig.
I am also to ask two (2) things: (1) that you stop here and WAIT for the responses, then respond... so as to (a) keep down confusion, and (b) give me an chance to respond to ALL (I am, after all, only one person and can type only so fast)... and (2) that you come down a little and ALSO look up the verses that I am directed to include for YOU... IN THE HEBREW/GREEK... as I have for those YOU include. This is so that you will at least have SOME idea as to where the current Bible translations got their start. If you can't do this, no worries, as the Spirit says that those who will… will… and those who won’t... won’t. So be it: we will see how this all shakes out.
ISSUE NO 1 -
Ecclesiastes 12:7 - and the dust returns to the ground it came from, and the spirit returns to God who gave it. compare with Acts 7:9
While they were stoning him, Stephen prayed, "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit."
Acts 7:59… okay...
Where do spirits return?
To GOD, the MOST Holy One of Israel… in the place that is under the alter in HIS temple (which is being built by His Son, the Greater "Solomon," Christ)… through Christ… the High Priest. Hebrews 8:1, 2
Who does Stephen ask to receive his spirit?
He asks Christ… the One THROUGH whom it must go in order to be received BY God. Why is this? Because Stephen’s spirit… as with the spirits of ALL those who belong to Christ… go UNDER THE ALTAR. Revelation 6:9 Where is the altar? At the entrance of the tabernacle/temple… OUTSIDE… which is, then, OUTSIDE the HOLY… and thus OUTSIDE the MOST Holy. Exodus 40:29; Hebrews 9:2
Now, let me ask: WHY did Stephen ask CHRIST to receive his spirit? Because HE… Christ… is the One APPOINTED by GOD… as our HIGH PRIEST… so the ONLY One who could offer it up… TO God.
Dear ones, at the time Ecclesiastes was written, GOD received the spirits of those who belonged to Him … through His priests at the time. Abel was a priest. Genesis 4:4 Noah was a priest. Genesis 8:20 Job… was a priest. Job 1:5 Abraham was a priest. Genesis 12:7 Jacob was a priest. Genesis 35:1 Moses was a priest. Exodus 17:15; 20:22, 24 Melchizedek was a priest. Genesis 14:18 And, finally, Aaron and his sons were priests. Exodus 28:1 Once the temple was constructed at Jerusalem... and UNTIL CHRIST CAME… it was the sons of Aaron, their sons, and some from the tribe Levi… who were priests to the MOST High God. But from Abel… to Zecharaiah son of Barachia... the Most Holy One of Israel had priests to “receive” ALL “offerings” to Him… whether it be the blood of goats and bulls… or the spirits of His servants. Matthew 23:35
This is because the WAY… INTO the “temple” had not be OPENED yet. That WAY… was Christ. John 14:6 Thus, it was only an EARTHLY temple that had been constructed by Moses (the tabernacle; replaced by the temple built by Solomon)… and so the WAY into the TRUE HOLIES… the SPIRITUAL TEMPLE… had not yet been manifest. Hebrews 9:6-10 However, WHEN CHRIST CAME… “as High Priest of the GOOD things that have come… HE became the WAY… THROUGH… the GREATER and MORE PERFECT tent/temple… NOT made of hands… NOT even of this CREATION. Hebrews 9:11
Thus, it would be to HIM that Stephen would entrust his spirit, to ensure that it indeed went UNDER the altar. Because NOW… HE is the Way, the Truth, and the Life. And he became that… prior to Stephen’s death. So, he was the WAY… for Stephen.
C’mon, little children, you can GET this. It is elementary stuff and NOT rocket science. There was a REASON for the construction of the tabernacle/temple. It’s entire presence, including the priests and physical features… ALL REPRESENTED SOMETHING. If you understood the whole purpose of the TEMPLE… which was the ILLUSTRATION of the “things to COME”… you would get this truth, as well. Moving on…
ISSUE NO. 2 –
Here are a few others... John 2:19;John 10:17
You should have read just a verse further, to John 10:18:
“I have authority to surrender it and I have authority to receive it again. The commandment on this… I RECEIVED… from MY FATHER.”
What did he mean by this? He had already explained at John 5:26, 27 and 30:
“For just as the FATHER has life in HIMSELF… so HE… has GRANTED ALSO to the SON… to have life… in himself. … I cannot do a SINGLE thing… of my OWN initiative; just as I hear, I judge; and the judgment that I render is righteous because… I seek… NOT MY OWN WILL… but the will… OF HIM THAT SENT ME.”
ISSUE NO. 3 -
Titus 2:13
while we wait for the blessed hope—the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ. That says it all.
Amen, SAC.
Even yet again at 2 Peter 1:1
2 Peter 1-1 I, Simon Peter, am a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ. I write this to you whose experience with God is as life-changing as ours, all due to our God's straight dealing and the intervention of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ. MSG
Unfortunately, your particular Bible version(s) have resituated the word “our” (denoted by the Greek word “hemon”) which originally appeared (in the Greek, at least, because Peter’s letter was written in Aramaic) before the word “Savior.” The GREEK… from which your translation is taken, states:
“Prosdechomai makarios elpis kai doxa epiphaneia megas theos… kai… hemon soter… Iesous Christos… "
which translates as:
“Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God… and… our Saviour… Jesus Christ...”
and NOT “our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ”… for Titus 2:23. The same thing occurs for 2 Peter 1:1. There, the GREEK states:
"Symeon Petros doulos kai apostolos Iesous Christos lagchano isotimos pistis hemin en dikaiosyne theos… kai… hemon soter… Iesous Christos…”
which translates as:
“Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God … and… our Saviour… Jesus Christ:”
The Greek term “hemon soter” means, “our Savior…” and there is NO Greek word “hemon” before the word “theos” (“God”)… to make it "our [great] God"... in EITHER verse.
So, why the word relocation? To support the FALSE teaching that God and Christ are one and same beings… as some are using it here.
And that is what I received from the Holy Spirit, my Lord and Master, the HOLY One of Israel, JAHESHUA MISCHAJAH, the SON... and Christ of the MOST Holy One of Israel, JAH of Armies.
Now, on to respond to the others... and I bid you all peace.
A slave of Christ,
SA
