Need your comments on Luke 20:34,35

by truthlover 22 Replies latest jw experiences

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  truthlover

  Narkissos:

  I double checked - the one I have is "The Septuagint with Apocrypha: Greek and English by Sir Lancelot C.L.Brenton and in it it says:

  "From the 4th century and onward, we know of no definite attempt to revise the text of the Septuagint, or to correct the discrepancies of various copies. It is probable, however, that just as the text of the Greek New testament became in a great measure fixed into the same form, as we find it in the modern copies,something of the same kind must have been the case of the Septuagint. As to the Greek New Testament, this seems to have occurred about the eleventh century, when the mass of copies were written within the limits of the patriarchate of Constantinople."

  So I guess its out there, now to find it
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  Narkissos

  truthlover,

  This refers to the textual standardisation of the Greek Bible (including both the Septuagint OT, which was mostly an ancient Jewish translation from Hebrew, and the Greek NT, which was originally written in Greek); as the copy process was then politically sponsored and organised it produced an impressive number of manuscripts -- all of the same textual type of course: what is often called the Byzantine or Majority text (this, in turn, provided the textual basis for Erasmus' textus receptus and for most Protestant NT translations down to the 19th century (e.g. the KJV).

  Otoh, critical LXX or NT editions such as Rahlfs' or Nestle & Aland's, or even the older Westcott & Hort which was the basis for the NWT(GCS), rely mostly on older manuscripts which weren't affected by the Byzantine standardisation. This is the case of the codices (Sinaiticus, Alexandrinus, etc.) from the 4th and 5th centuries, and of more fragmentary but older papyrii up to the 2nd century.
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  iknowall558

  @oompa 7 concobines ..? You prepared for the 7 mothers in law ?