Bible Error: How Did Judas Die?

by JosephAlward 39 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • hillary_step
    hillary_step

    Joseph,

    I've noted that Luke never meant for readers to believe that Judas actually "burst" open, but simply wanted us to compare Judas metaphorically to the old wineskin that Luke spoke of earlier in his gospel. Just as an old wineskin cannot hold new wine, and thus bursts, so did Judas "burst"--in a figurative sense only--when he could not hold the new teachings of Jesus.

    Given your thread title 'Bible Error. How did Judas Die' and noting your explanation which may hold some interpretive value, have you not rather shot yourself in the foot?

    Are you attempting to prove the Bible’s account invalid and in error or that it is open to other reasonable interpretations?

    I stand confused - HS

  • Bang
    Bang

    Hi Larsguy,

    I want to hear whether JWs are annointed, see the post above.
    You already said << He likes to trip up the "wise in their own cunning" and to show the foolishness of worldly wisdom. >>

    Bang

  • JosephAlward
    JosephAlward

    Thanks for the perceptive comments, Hillary. A careful reader of my posts would conclude--as you have--that I'm arguing that there is no Bible "error," but merely a misinterpretation of the Bible by inerrantists.

    My position is that for those who hold that the Bible is literally true--as Lars does in the case of the Acts account of Judas "bursting," the Bible seems to be in error, but for those who don't feel obligated to believe every story in the Bible is literally true, the wineskin-metaphor more neatly removes the "error."

    Joseph F. Alward
    "Skeptical Views of Christianity and the Bible"
    http://members.aol.com/jalw/joseph_alward.html

  • Larsguy
    Larsguy

    Hi Joseph,
    I noted that I didn't have to answer your question since I needed only one example of this style in the gospels. I just told you that it was a common Jewish style to hide these references but I didn't feel like bothering giving you any since I know you'll just argue about them.

    But since you INSIST, I'll give you one Biblical example and one "secular Jewish" example:

    Because of the apparent chronology revisions during ancient times, the Bible seems to purposely make their chronology confusing during the Divided Kingdom period. The reason why might be because if the chronology is confounding and confusing then it makes it more difficult to revise. Furthermore, a complex chronology that nobody understands doesn't seem to contradict the ever-going changes in other chronologies. Here's an example of what I mean.

    The Jewish kings were often co-rulers. The father would retire early while retaining his title and his son would start actively ruling as "king" while his father was still alive. This was done by an official ceremony. This provided the context for a king who succeeded his father while still alive to have "become king" twice; once when he became the official king-co-ruler and once again when his father died and he was coronated as the official king.

    So the Bible writers took advantage of this to weave a complex pattern of references to these kingships, contrasting the chronology between the two kingdoms.

    Here's your example:

    Jehorum, the son of Ahab is said to have "become king" on two separate dates. One was in the 18th year of Jehoshaphat and the other was in the second year of Joram the son of Jehoshaphat. But elsewhere, we learn that Joram became king in the 5th year of Jehoram. Is that a contradiction? No.

    What this gives us are both of Jehorams "King" dates. That is, he became co-ruler in the 18th of Jehoshaphat and his father died in his sixth year since he became king again in the second of Joram who became king his Jehoram's fifth year. In other words, he became king in his sixth year as sole ruler.

    But in order to align that right you also have to have the right alignment of Jehoshaphat's rule and when Joram became co-ruler with his father as well. So it's very, very complex! But if you sat down and worked it out, you'd be able to figure it all out by all the references. Most persons haven't been able to figure it out without presuming some empty gaps in the kingships, because most don't realize that the co-ruler was called the "king" and there were co-rulerships. But it should be clear that the Bible is not straightforward about this chronology and is purposely making this complex in order to confound outsiders who might want to revise or suppress these historical records.

    NOW, Josephus does this many times in his works, especially since he was aware of this little play on words with respect to these kingships.

    Thus in APION we find him making a vague reference to the Jews being in exile for 70 years at 1:19 and then later a reference to Cyrus beoming king after "fifty years" of desolation of Jerusalem. Now taken as it is, it seems that he contradicts himself in 1:21 when he says the city was desolated for a period of "fifty years". But this is a critical contradiction since it was just in the previous paragraph that he again asserted a 70-year desolation period.

    So is Josephus, like the gospel writers, just a another dumb historian? Who can't make up his mind if the Jerusalem was desolated for 70 vs 50 years? Or is there some secret hidden meaning here?

    Well....we can reflect back onto the Bible's use of the co-rulership and see if that might not solve the problem here. Well, of course, it does. How so? Because Cyrus became king of Persia twenty years before he conquered Babylon. The revised dating is 559 and 539BCE, a 20-year interval. Of course, in case you haven't noticed, there is a 20-year interval between 70 years and 50 years. Therefore, to correct the apparently contradiction, it need only be true that Jerusalem was desolated for fifty years AND seventy Years at the time Cyrus became king, either in Persia and/or Babylon. And that is exactly the case. Cyrus became king of Persia 50 years after the desolation began and again when he conquered Babylon he started counting a new kingship 20 years later.

    So one way to look at this is that Josephus is not contradicing himself at all, but playing the "kingship" word game and making a reference to the two kingship dates of Cyrus, which are 20 years apart. Thus his 70 year reference and 50 year reference tell us that Cyrus became king twice, 20 years apart, 50 years and 70 years after Jerusalem's desolation began.

    See.

    And I have other examples of this. But I don't expect you, who have proven to be totally biased, to pay any attention to this.

    But I have provided you with the example and this is enough of a basis to suggest that the Bible and Jewish writers do seem to present contradictory texts which, in fact, attempt to hide information from outsiders, and the gospels are simply doing the same thing. This is VERY JEWISH if you know and have study Jewish style in literature.

    So I know what I'm talking about. You don't know what you're talking about. And that doesn't seem like it's going to change anytime soon.

    At any rate, it's not because I don't have the examples that I didn't bother presenting them, not that I needed to to prove my point. But I wasn't just making something up, this was truly based upon many other examples and is well-founded.

    I hope that satisfied your answer, when actually, I was not interested in satisfying your answer but merely showing others who might be reading this that your claim that I didn't have any examples meant I was bluffing or something like that. I don't need to bluff, I have the FACTS. You need to bluff because you have nothing.

    Have a nice day Joseph. Try again harder next time.

    By the way, the Bible IS TRUE and Christ IS real and you're going to have to pay for all this deception you're putting out. Don't think that on Judgment Day you can pretend ignorance. You're being far too dishonest about your arguments to claim you don't know any better. So I hope you consider that "every unprofitable word" you speak you will be held accountable for. I'm sure you've read that scripture so I don't have to quote the verse, do I?

    Have a nice day.

    L.G.

  • Bang
    Bang

    Joseph writes,

    << Why does he think this makes more sense than the wineskin metaphor? Why? >>

    Joseph, you already know why, JWs explain and understand in terms of the flesh. I'm keen to see Larsguy's or the orgs' understanding of the unjust judge. You've gotta wonder how jagged rocks came into it. Might have been a WT publication.

    Well picked up on with the wineskins. I can't agree that there is ever a contradiction, only a present lack of understanding. I had reckoned he hung himself, but even so, is it a reference to having been strangled? If your ofay with some anagogical understanding, why are you skeptical?

    I've just read, you don't believe there's error. Sorry, from the book title I thought you were skeptical. You know what Christ said, 'If you can accept it, John was Elijah'

    Bang

  • JosephAlward
    JosephAlward

    Bang writes,

    "If your ofay with some anagogical understanding, why are you skeptical?"

    Alward responds:

    Some passages in the Bible are allegories, metaphors, or just figures of speech. Other passages were meant to be taken literally, but some of them conflict with other passages which likewise were meant to be taken literally. I'm not skeptical about the former passages, only the latter.

    Joseph F. Alward
    "Skeptical Views of Christianity and the Bible"
    http://members.aol.com/jalw/joseph_alward.html

  • Bang
    Bang

    Joseph writes:

    << Other passages were meant to be taken literally, but some of them conflict with other passages which likewise were meant to be taken literally. I'm not skeptical about the former passages, only the latter >>

    Bang questions,
    How would you know which were likewise to be taken literally?

    Bang

  • JosephAlward
    JosephAlward

    I can't know with certainty which passages were meant to be taken literally. For the purpose of contesting the inerrantists' belief that all of the stories were meant to be taken literally, it won't matter if I'm wrong about which stories were literally true. If it turns out that I'm wrong about an author intending a story to be literally true, then the Bible's not literally true, and the inerrantists are wrong.

    Joseph F. Alward
    "Skeptical Views of Christianity and the Bible"
    http://members.aol.com/jalw/joseph_alward.html

  • hillary_step
    hillary_step

    Joseph,

    Just a suggestion - perhaps you might entitle your threads 'A Literalist View Of Bible In Error'.

    Then Larsguy can abandon his post and get something to eat. He has been without food for days now since you started all this stuff. How would you feel if you caused his malnutrition?

    Best regards - HS

  • JosephAlward
    JosephAlward

    Lars attempted to provide "secular Jewish" example of the "Jewish writing sytle" he thinks shows a tendency toward secrecy. Lars' example was Josephus' seemingly contradictory description of the desolation period.

    Lars just assumes that Josephus couldn't have made a mistake, and therefore the seeming contradition was intended as a screen to prevent others from knowing the truth.

    First of all, that's preposterous. What possible reason could Josephus have had for hiding the truth about the desolation period? It's not as if he was describing where the Ark of the Covenant was buried and didn't want outsiders to understand what he was writing.

    Second, why couldn't Josephus have been honestly in error? Historians of any age make mistakes of interpretation, use false data, and make mistatements. Why must a mistake by Josephus--if that's what it was--be evidence of what Lars thinks was a "Jewish writing style" of hiding important information?

    Now that Lars has shown a willingness to attempt to answer questions he thinks he can answer, perhaps he will now provide the answers to questions I've asked of him repeatedly--if he thinks he can answer them. I'll ask them again, below; if he doesn't answer them, perhaps it will be fair to assume that he cannot answer them.

    Larsguy has refused my invitation for him to explain why he rejects the obvious explanation of Luke's account in Acts of Judas "bursting" open. I've noted that Luke never meant for readers to believe that Judas actually "burst" open, but simply wanted us to compare Judas metaphorically to the old wineskin that Luke spoke of earlier in his gospel. Just as an old wineskin cannot hold new wine, and thus bursts, so did Judas "burst"--in a figurative sense only--when he could not hold the new teachings of Jesus.

    Why does he hold to his belief that the Bible writers wanted us to guess how Judas first hanged himself and then ended up with his guts spilled. Why does he think this makes more sense than the wineskin metaphor? Why?

    Finally, Larsguy has also refused to respond to the question I asked in a previous post. I'll repeat it here:

    "How do you know that you're not just imagining this relationship you have with God, a relationship which is so special it places you in a position of privilege above billions of other inhabitants of this planet? If you say that 'Jehovah told me,' then how do you--and we--know you're not just imagining that? How would the Governing Body know?"

    Joseph F. Alward
    "Skeptical Views of Christianity and the Bible"
    http://members.aol.com/jalw/joseph_alward.html

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