Asked first and you then would know the answer to Thomas.
Saintbertholdt
JoinedPosts by Saintbertholdt
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45
What language was Jesus most at home with?
by fulltimestudent inour former loving brothers and sisters have been instructed to think that, jesus likely spoke a form of hebrew and a form of aramaic.
(aid to bible understanding-103-105).
of course, there is no way to demonstrate the truth of that assertion or any other assertion about the languages that the common people of the land spoke.
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45
What language was Jesus most at home with?
by fulltimestudent inour former loving brothers and sisters have been instructed to think that, jesus likely spoke a form of hebrew and a form of aramaic.
(aid to bible understanding-103-105).
of course, there is no way to demonstrate the truth of that assertion or any other assertion about the languages that the common people of the land spoke.
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Saintbertholdt
Oh thats easy.
In the very same way that Luke and Matthew follow Mark.
And how is that accomplished?
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Saintbertholdt
I want to know a little more and I love english so my choice for the forum was easy ^^
Well you've certainly come to the right place then and you'll definitely learn a lot more.
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45
What language was Jesus most at home with?
by fulltimestudent inour former loving brothers and sisters have been instructed to think that, jesus likely spoke a form of hebrew and a form of aramaic.
(aid to bible understanding-103-105).
of course, there is no way to demonstrate the truth of that assertion or any other assertion about the languages that the common people of the land spoke.
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Saintbertholdt
The first account and the simplest is the Petrine Gospel.
The Gospel of Thomas seems to be earlier and is probably Q.
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Saintbertholdt
I'm a believer, A Jehovah's witness, if you want to know more, come on
Um...What would a wee french lass be doin on a forum like this me wonder to my hagas?
Mandy97, are you sure you'rrrr where you're supposed to be then?
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Saintbertholdt
Bonjourrrrrr...
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45
What language was Jesus most at home with?
by fulltimestudent inour former loving brothers and sisters have been instructed to think that, jesus likely spoke a form of hebrew and a form of aramaic.
(aid to bible understanding-103-105).
of course, there is no way to demonstrate the truth of that assertion or any other assertion about the languages that the common people of the land spoke.
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Saintbertholdt
And regardless of that, even a charlatan pretending to be the promised Messiah among my people Israel would not do so speaking the language of a Gentile.
No I'm not saying he did not speak Aramaic, just that he had a heavy Egyptian (Coptic) accent. If he was charismatic perhaps women were attracted to him first and they found his accent foreign and attractive. The men later just went with to listen because their wives would nag them to go.
...such a man would not have gathered such crowds who came to hear him teach if he spoke a language the common Jewish people did not understand.
Like I said perhaps it was a foreign attraction thing and then it evolved into much more. Look at the synoptic gospels. They never fully agree about what Jesus said in any instance. I suspect they couldn't make out what he was saying clearly and had to make things up. The disciples later got together to try and figure it out but they never really cleared up matters. Its almost like a Scotsman addressing an American audience. They share a common language but the Americans would not have a real clue what the Scotsman was saying. They would have to fill in the blanks. Then when one gets to the gospel of John one gets the idea that he might have been ingesting a hallucinogenic of some sort and not paying attention to Jesus at all. Jesus is God and all that and he almost never agrees with the Synoptics. Then when you get to Revelation you know he's on something.
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45
What language was Jesus most at home with?
by fulltimestudent inour former loving brothers and sisters have been instructed to think that, jesus likely spoke a form of hebrew and a form of aramaic.
(aid to bible understanding-103-105).
of course, there is no way to demonstrate the truth of that assertion or any other assertion about the languages that the common people of the land spoke.
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Saintbertholdt
Hi CalebInFlorida,
Here's some information on the relationship between Ancient Egyptian and Coptic:
The Spoken Language System: Some scholars hold that the ancient Egyptians had another language in addition to the written form. Father Shenouda Maher summarized the opinion of Chain concerning the popular national language of ancient Egypt, . . . in which he emphasizes that the Egyptian and Coptic languages have been together simultaneously since olden times. Chain has presented a copious and detailed study and has indicated that the Egyptian language is not a spoken language is so far as it is basically derived from Coptic, assuming that Coptic is the origin, and that the Egyptian language was used by the priests and the scribes in their written work only.
This means that the Egyptian language is the language of the Egyptian who spoke in Coptic and who used this language for scriptural purposes only. This Egyptian language was only known to scribes and totally unknown to the public.19
The two systems could be explained by assuming all Egyptian since very ancient times spoke one language, but this language took a different form when used in writing. The oral language was colloquial and used by the common people. Although the spoken language developed over time, it was not written during the rule of the pharaohs. As noted earlier, it was finally written in the third century A. D., utilizing the 31 letters from Greek and Demotic. Utilizing all of these letters allowed for the correct pronunciation of the written language, primarily because the ancient Egyptian did not include vowels.20
In any case, the Coptic language “is, at base, a dialect of Ancient Egyptian; many of the nouns and verbs found in the Hieroglyphic texts remain unchanged in Coptic, and a large number of others can, by making proper allowance for phonetic decay and dialectic differences, be identified without difficulty.”21
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45
What language was Jesus most at home with?
by fulltimestudent inour former loving brothers and sisters have been instructed to think that, jesus likely spoke a form of hebrew and a form of aramaic.
(aid to bible understanding-103-105).
of course, there is no way to demonstrate the truth of that assertion or any other assertion about the languages that the common people of the land spoke.
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Saintbertholdt
Footnote: Jesus being most comfortable with Egyptian might explain a lot regarding his relationship with his disciples. Many times the gospels refer to the fact that Jesus was not understood correctly. If one considers the above logic it is quite obvious that Jesus might have spoken with a heavy Egyptian accent, making his sermons and speeches much more difficult to understand. His use of obscure parables might also be explained in the fact that he had an Egyptian background. The gospels many times do not agree about what Jesus said in specific instances, and this might also be explained in the fact that the disciples could not make out what he was saying. By doing a comparative study of the synoptic gospels it is clear that at some point Jesus' disciples at least tried to compare notes. -
45
What language was Jesus most at home with?
by fulltimestudent inour former loving brothers and sisters have been instructed to think that, jesus likely spoke a form of hebrew and a form of aramaic.
(aid to bible understanding-103-105).
of course, there is no way to demonstrate the truth of that assertion or any other assertion about the languages that the common people of the land spoke.
-
Saintbertholdt
What language was Jesus most at home with?
That is a tough question.
Well the language Jesus would have been most at home with was the language he grew up with during his formative years. Now according to the gospels Jesus, Mary and Joseph fled for Egypt when he was an infant. How long did they stay there? In the Gospel of the Infancy it is stated three years; in the History of Joseph one year; in Tatian's Harmony seven years ; by Epiphanius two years. Athanasius makes Jesus four years old when He came from Egypt; Baronius eight years.
The average time of all of the above is 4.1 years.
At approximately 2 years of age, a child's ability to use language suddenly increases rapidly. The size of the vocabulary increases and they begin to string words together in short sentences. The ability to represent objects, people and events through language, develops at about the same time as representation in children's imitation, play and other actions. While representation is not required in uttering simple individual words, it is necessary for organizing words into simple statements.
So I would have to say Egyptian... definitely Egyptian.