....when they did not include a translation of the Hebrew Scriptures in your special Kingdom Interlinear Bible?
Perhaps it is easier to manipulate the New Testament to fit with their twisted JW teachings?
....when they did not include a translation of the hebrew scriptures in your special kingdom interlinear bible?
perhaps it is easier to manipulate the new testament to fit with their twisted jw teachings?.
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Perhaps it is easier to manipulate the New Testament to fit with their twisted JW teachings?
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Jehovah's Witnesses often use this passage to prove to others that your SPIRITUAL brother is to be shunned if he does not listen to you. If your brother sins against you, go and show him his fault, just between the two of you. If he listens to you, you have won your brother over. But if he will not listen, take one or two others along, so that 'every matter may be established by the testimony of two or three witnesses.' If he refuses to listen to them, tell it to the church; and if he refuses to listen even to the church, treat him as you would a pagan or a tax collector. Source: Matthew 18:15-17 If the term brother has multiple meanings (like this one-"those united in a general cause and having similar aims and purposes") then why do the Jehovah's Witnesses only choose one meaning (SPIRITUAL BROTHER) to the verse mentioned above that is, in the Christian congregation members enjoy a common spiritual relationship analogous to that of brothers.
Insight Volume 1 pg 369
“Brother” is also applied to those united in a general cause and having similar aims and purposes. For example, King Hiram of Tyre called King Solomon his brother, not simply because he was an equal in rank and position but also perhaps because of mutual interests in supplying timbers and other things for the temple. (1Ki 9:13; 5:1-12) “Look! How good and how pleasant it is for brothers to dwell together in unity!” David wrote, implying that it is not blood relations alone that make for peace and unity between fleshly brothers. (Ps 133:1) In fact, mutual affection and interest, not common parentage, prompted David to call Jonathan his brother. (2Sa 1:26) Companions having similar natures and dispositions, even when such are bad, are properly called brothers.—Pr 18:9.
In Matthew 18:21 Then Peter came up and said to him: “Lord, how many times is my brother to sin against me and am I to forgive him? Up to seven times?” 22 Jesus said to him: “I say to you, not, Up to seven times, but, Up to seventy-seven times.
Seventy-seven, a repetition of seven in a number, was equivalent to saying “indefinitely” or “without limit.” Jesus counsels Christians to forgive their brothers to that extent. (Mt 18:21, 22)
So if Jesus says to forgive seventy-seven times meaning indefinitly and the word "brother" (Hebrew, 'ach, and in Greek, a·del·phos) knowing it has multiple meanings, does that change the whole context of NOT shunning your NON SPIRITUAL brother and forgiving him indefinitly? Again, brother has multiple meanings one being, in this example "those united in a general cause and having similar aims and purposes" BUT not necessarily having a spiritual connection.
My point is: Shouldn't this just mean that we are to forgive anyone (brother-mankind) who goes against us and not just your spiritual brother?
"koine greek was the language used by writers of the old testament greek septuagint and the greek new testament.
the original greek new testament was written in all capital letters, without spaces, punctuation, accents or diacritical marks.".
http://biblescripture.net/greek.html.
Even though the Watchtower Society recognized that original Greek text contained uncials, they went against all the rules of original Greek and used capital and lowercase within their version of say for example John 1:1 in support of their anti-Trinitarian teachings.
"koine greek was the language used by writers of the old testament greek septuagint and the greek new testament.
the original greek new testament was written in all capital letters, without spaces, punctuation, accents or diacritical marks.".
http://biblescripture.net/greek.html.
Perhaps you do not understand my post.
"koine greek was the language used by writers of the old testament greek septuagint and the greek new testament.
the original greek new testament was written in all capital letters, without spaces, punctuation, accents or diacritical marks.".
http://biblescripture.net/greek.html.
"Why should the writers of an English translation follow Koine Greek grammar or punctuation rules?"
To be consistant with the JWs so called accurate interpretation of ancient scripts. They follow the rules to a tee, why not add that special feature just to be consistant? All capitals-Koine Greek, all capitals English language. Also, it is a bit strange seeing caps for certain words pertaining to humans (for example-YOU) BUT no caps for pronouns (him, his, he) referencing the Creator of the Universe-Jehovah.
"Then to ?YOU? I will cause my spirit to bubble forth; I will make my words known to ?YOU.24Because I have called out but ?YOU? keep refusing, I have stretched out my hand but there is no one paying attention,25and ?YOU? keep neglecting all my counsel, and my reproof ?YOU? have not accepted,26I also, for my part, shall laugh at ?YOUR? own disaster, I shall mock when what ?YOU? dread comes,27when what ?YOU? dread comes just like a storm, and ?YOUR? own disaster gets here just like a storm wind, when distress and hard times come upon ?YOU."28
NWT Proverbs 1
dr. furuli says that when interpreting the bible verses, " ....readers of the bible should have the possibility of "informed consent" and be given the tools to make "informed choices".. be given the tools to interpret bible verses????.
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Thanks Afghanistan
"koine greek was the language used by writers of the old testament greek septuagint and the greek new testament.
the original greek new testament was written in all capital letters, without spaces, punctuation, accents or diacritical marks.".
http://biblescripture.net/greek.html.
"Koine Greek was the language used by writers of the Old Testament Greek Septuagint and the Greek New Testament. The original Greek New Testament was written in all capital letters, without spaces, punctuation, accents or diacritical marks."
http://biblescripture.net/Greek.html
Since the Jehovah's Witnesses interpret Bible verses using the ancient manuscripts, you would think that they would actually do what the writers of the Koine Greek Septuagint did and capitalize every single word in the New Testament.
Also, why is it that in the NWT there are certain phrases that have caps while others do not? It seems a bit inconsistent and hypocritical when they are so anal about the proper interpretation of ancient Biblical texts that they do not copy the same style as those writers of old.
dr. furuli says that when interpreting the bible verses, " ....readers of the bible should have the possibility of "informed consent" and be given the tools to make "informed choices".. be given the tools to interpret bible verses????.
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Dr. Furuli says that when interpreting the Bible verses, " ....readers of the Bible should have the possibility of "informed consent" and be given the tools to make "informed choices".
BE GIVEN THE TOOLS to interpret bible verses????
with regard to gambling, jehovah's witnesses teach:.
every form of gambling is tainted by greed.
so christians do not take part in any kind of gambling, such as lotteries, horse racing, and bingo.
With regard to gambling, Jehovah's Witnesses teach:
Every form of gambling is tainted by greed. So Christians do not take part in any kind of gambling, such as lotteries, horse racing, and bingo. (Ephesians 5:3-5)
If you look at it this way, the theory behind gambling is taking a chance and being dependent on chance NOT God/Holy Spirit. Keeping this in mind, when the Governing Body members change doctrine from "Old Light" to "New Light", is this in fact a form of gambeling since they are making changes (mistakes)? Hit and miss? Gambling on holy spirit?
regarding illustrations (parables)-.
"because the hearer is left to apply the principles of the illustration to himself, it can carry to him a clear message of warning and rebuke, at the same time disarming him so that he has no ground to retaliate against the speaker.
in other words, as the saying goes, if the shoe fits, wear it.
Regarding Illustrations (parables)-
"Because the hearer is left to apply the principles of the illustration to himself, it can carry to him a clear message of warning and rebuke, at the same time disarming him so that he has no ground to retaliate against the speaker. In other words, as the saying goes, ‘If the shoe fits, wear it.’ When the Pharisees criticized Jesus for eating with tax collectors and sinners, Jesus replied: “Persons in health do not need a physician, but the ailing do. Go, then, and learn what this means, ‘I want mercy, and not sacrifice.’ For I came to call, not righteous people, but sinners.”—Mt 9:11-13".
"Finally, the factors in an illustration should not be given an arbitrary meaning, one gained from a private view or from philosophy. The rule is set forth for Christians: "No one has come to know the things of God, except the spirit of God. Now we received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is from God, that we might know the things that have been kindly given us by God. These things we also speak, not with words taught by human wisdom, but with those taught by the spirit, as we combine spiritual matters with spiritual words."-1Co 2:11-13."
Insight Volume 1 pg. 1175-1176
If God's spirit is with every single Jehovah's Witness, then the guidance given by spirit to assist in understanding a specific verse pertaining to a special event in one's life allows for interpretational freedom. With regard to parables, if each parable pertains to one's own personal experience in a particular circumstance is that not called interpretational freedom?