For some reason the Watchtower demands that readers see this story as if it was as true as a news report. Which makes more sense? A factual report where animals die to rise again and die two more times or the Jewish understanding that this is written using an ancient technique common to religious narratives that are not meant to be taken literally?
Just in passing, I'm not sure if I determined this by my own research or that it was covered in explanation in some WTS publication, but the reference to "animals" was very specific. There was a distinction between "domestic" animals and cattle. In other words, it was my impression that cattle were killed by one plague and then pets in the house were killed by another plague. So that the impression that "all" animals are being killed more than one time is a incompetent interpretation. That is, the Bible is specific about one group of animals being killed by one plague and another group of animals being killed by another. You know, God killed the cattle in one plague then killed the Egyptian pets in another plague -- they were not the specific same group of animals. But the casual reading presuming a nonspecific concept for a general reference to ALL animals is the basis for confusion.
Even so, to make this claim I think you needed to be aware at lest of the WTS' explanation of how one plague killed the animals and yet another plague claims to kill other animals.
But this is typical. When scholars superimpose their own incompetent misinterpretation of the Scriptures to what the Bible really teaches, they come up with a negative view of the bible based on their incompetence and not on the Bible itself and this is "typical." But the Bible is sometimes a very difficult book to understand or some people superimpose their own personal view of the Bible as the only option.
Case in point, your #1. The Law Code and Jewish ritual of temple sacrifices more than confirms the concept of the original sin. Direct statements in the OT scripture about the transference of the sin of the fathers to the son creates the foundation of the original sin. But since you apparently MISSED that, you presume the idea of the original sin is not part of Jewish culture.
Now this is a very intellectualized concept of what Jews believe, but frankly, it is not intellectualized enough. The Law Code teaches Jews about the "original sin" and how the ransom sacrifice works, a concept seemingly not comprehended by you.
So I hear you, based on your own distorted misinterpretation of Jewish doctrine. Your inadequate view of Scripture is what you are creating conclusions on and not the specific facts of Scripture.
Or like your concept of the "firmament." You provided your own interpretation of "dome" rather than circle and then superimposed that reference to contradict the interpretation in some Bibles that the earth was actually round. But my interpretation of the "firmament" is not to the sky but to the water canopy after the division of the waters below and the waters above. "That is, that the earth was completely covered with water at first and above it a thick fog. So a division was made between the sea and the fog. The fog became condensed into the water canopy around the earth creating a clear bubble around the earth which then was frozen solid. Thus the earth was encased in something similar to a clear glass bubble, only it was clear ice, that is, something solid. This, in turn, created the "hot house" effect on the earth at a time when there were no seasons and no rains. Now that is "scientific" and part of the context of what happened during the flood. That is, this solid ice water canopy was super-heated and melted back into thick rain clouds and resulted in a global flood, covering the highest mountains.
So truly, you speak intelligently and all of what you say sounds reasonable, but only to someone who doesn't actually know Scripture. Or I should say, some read passages and get one concept of those passages and don't realize someone else gets another concept of the same passage. Then they draw conclusions on their own interpretation of the passage, which may be faulty or precise and then wonder why others come to a different conclusion?
So I will politely acknowledge that perhaps if I had your interpretation of the Scriptures I'd reasonably come to the same conclusions as you did, but since I have my own interpretation, I have different conclusions.
But let me share this one thing with you. You seem to be someone who presumes that the Exodus didn't really happen. Do you realize the Bible confirms that Akhenaten was the pharaoh of the Exodus and that after the 10 plagues he converted to monotheism? Thus the ten plagues and the Exodus literally happened?
It is one thing to claim the Exodus never happened and claim there is no evidence of the Exodus and quite another to try to dismiss the Exodus from happening during a specific time and with a specific pharaoh. But then, of course, you will lack "evidence" of the Exodus occurring during any other time than it actually happened, that's a no-brainer. Point being, someone arguing the Exodus never happened in a nonspecific manner or a distorted manner, like dating the Exodus at the time of Rameses II rather than Amenhotep III can get by with that logical argument. But it is far more difficult to claim the Exodus didn't happen in the context of a pharaoh becoming a monotheist.
So I would propose to you to please comment on the Exodus as an actual event if it occurred at the end of the reign of Amenhotep III and the beginning of the reign of Akhenaten? I would add, though, that the pharaoh of the Exodus was never lost historically. George Syncellus, for instance, from the 8th Century AD clearly confirmed that the pharaoh of the Exodus was understood to be Amenhotep III. Thus this concept that we don' know who the pharaoh of the Exodus was is pure propaganda. And this does relate to "science" as well, since the dating of the fall of Jericho is linked to the Israelites. Determine the date Jericho fell last followed by a 400-year period of desolation and you can date the Exodus! Guess what? The LBA fall of Jericho between 1350-1325 BCE per archaeologists, points to an Exodus between 1390-1365 BCE which points to Amenhotep III and Akhenaten, who were the traditionally established pharaohs of the Exodus anyway.
The fact that you don't even know that, apparently, or have found excuses to ignore it, is something to consider.
So would you please comment for me on whether (1) you believe the Exodus was a real event, but also please date the Exodus at the time of Amenhotep III. Thank you.