Earthquakes - a sign of the End?

by Pole 16 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • Pole
    Pole

    Let?s assume earthquakes were to be part of ?the sign of the end? given by Jesus. If we follow this logic, then what does it mean in real terms? It means that within one year between 1913 and 1914, which is when Jesus sat on his heavenly throne, an unprecedented geological revolution must have taken place. Earthquakes had been a rare occurrence up until 1914 (yeah right), but in that particular year they began striking on a scale which had never been observed before.

    The question now is: who or what caused this sudden increase in seismological activity?

    1) Was it Jehovah?s Spirit? If so, then is Jehovah responsible for the deaths of millions, including his faithful witlesses?
    2) Was it Satan? Then how does it relate to the claim that Satan cannot kill Jehovah?s servants directly?
    3) Was it some mysterious deterministic force whose effects were so easy for Jehovah to predict? If so, then are we all subject to predestination?

    Any other suggestions? How would a JW handle this question?

    Regards,

    Pole

  • homme perdu
    homme perdu

    Pole that is a question that should be asked to the majority of Christiandom and not just the JW's, excluding 1914.

    By the way the anwser to question number three can be found in Reasoning from the Scriptures, its a poor one.

  • gaiagirl
    gaiagirl

    Earthquakes are a sign that there has been movement along a tectonic plate boundary, nothing more. When Jesus was alive, people living in the middle east would have no idea of an earthquake whose epicenter was in, say, California, although the conditions which cause quakes there today were operating 2000 years ago (and long before then). The only quakes they would have known about would have been those which actually affected the area in which they lived. Now with global news, we know immediately about events on the other side of the earth. There aren't more quakes (or more disasters in general) than previously, but we sure know about them quickly, no matter where they occur.

  • JH
    JH

    I don't know why Jesus gave that sign, it has nothing to do with man's spirituality.

  • AlanF
    AlanF

    Pole, you should know not to ask unprofitable questions.

    AlanF

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    First there is nothing said about an INCREASE in earthquakes. It simply says there was to be earthquakes in typical apocalypic style. Earthquakes and plagues etc. were a traditional prequel to a big event. It not a 'sign' as much as a statement of doom and despair. The entire sequence was written after 70 to make it appear that Jesus had 'fortold' the fall of the Temple. The author of Mark 13 never even pretended to fortell events 2000 years later.

  • Pole
  • Pole
    Pole

    AlanF,

    Pole, you should know not to ask unprofitable questions.

    Oh yeah it's meant to be a non-profit question. I was hoping those who believe natural disasters are "a divine sign" would show up on this thread.

    pp ,

    First there is nothing said about an INCREASE in earthquakes. It simply says there was to be earthquakes in typical apocalypic style. Earthquakes and plagues etc. were a traditional prequel to a big event. It not a 'sign' as much as a statement of doom and despair. The entire sequence was written after 70 to make it appear that Jesus had 'fortold' the fall of the Temple. The author of Mark 13 never even pretended to fortell events 2000 years later.

    Well, you mean "there were to be earthquakes in typical apocaliyptic style", so there's nothing special about them? I still think for earthquakes to be a "sign of doom and despair" they have to occur in a special way just like plagues. The fact they are mentioned in apposition to the fulfillment of a prophecy does indicate some correlation, doesn't it? Otherwise it makes no sense to mention them. If that doesn't mean an increased frequency or a greater effect then what does it mean?

    Of course I fully agree this "prophecy" had nothing to do with any distant future. Thanks for your answer anyway.

    JH ,

    I don't know why Jesus gave that sign, it has nothing to do with man's spirituality.

    Thanks for an honest answer. I assume you are a believer (?).

    homme perdu ,

    Pole that is a question that should be asked to the majority of Christiandom and not just the JW's, excluding 1914.

    You mean most Christians believe there is some special meaning to natural disasters?

    gaiagirl ,

    Pole

  • A Paduan
    A Paduan

    Let?s assume earthquakes were to be part of ?the sign of the end? given by Jesus.

    Hey, lets make an ass out of u and me, and even withhold medical treatment from our children, change our lives and shun our family on that assumption.

  • Bas
    Bas

    some earthquake history:

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