Tricky, eh?
So then:
Questions from Readers: November 15, 1974
? Do lewd practices on the part of a married person toward that one?s own mate constitute a Scriptural basis for the offended mate to get a divorce?
There are times when lewd practices within the marriage arrangement would provide a basis for a Scriptural divorce. Of course, the Holy Scriptures do not encourage divorce nor do they command the innocent party to divorce a mate who engages in adultery or gross sexual perversion.
OK, so lets say that Sister Noway has divorced her over demanding hubby on the basis of the above information. She has since married a charmingly elder fellow who regards her body as a holy shrine and is ecstatically happy in her new role.
Suddenly, 9 years down the line, this appears:
Honour Godly Marriage. Mar 15th, 1983:
What, though, if one mate wants or even demands to share with his or her partner in what is clearly a perverted sex practice? The above-presented facts show that porneia involves unlawful sexual conduct outside the marital arrangement. Thus, a mate?s enforcing perverted acts, such as oral or anal sex, within the marriage would not constitute a Scriptural basis for a divorce that would free either for remarriage.
Will she now be judged as being guilty of adultery having divorced and re-married on a false premise?
Will it be swept under the carpet?
Suppose original husband still has the hots for his ex-missus, can he now just move back in with her as the new marriage is "scripturally" null and void and re-claim his role as head of the house? What about the new guy?
I wonder how many people remarried under the no porneia rule during those years between 1974 and 1983?
Henry V111 would have had a field day with this one!
Englishman. (acknowledgements to Quotes)