04-2022 Q from Readers on Divorce

by Rattigan350 11 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • BluesBrother

    The article said

    This adjusted view does not undermine the sacredness of marriage or minimize the seriousness of adultery. A man who divorces his wife without Scriptural grounds and then marries another person without being Scripturally free to do so would be subject to judicial action on the charge of adultery. (If the new marriage mate is a Christian, she would also be subject to judicial action on the charge of adultery.) Although the new marriage would not be viewed as adulterous, the man would not qualify for special privileges of service in the congregation for many years and not before living down any notoriety or reproach associated with his wrongdoing. This would include taking into consideration the current circumstances of the previous mate who may have been dealt with treacherously and any minor children who may have been abandoned by the guilty mate.​—Mal. 2:14-16.”


    Stone the crows ! It’s a flipping minefield of apparent contradiction and confusion. I would bet that different Bof E would interpret this in different ways . I am glad I am not asked to explain it.

  • peacefulpete

    Thanks. Could anyone locate the Dec1995-1996 (I'm pretty sure) direction? It did not equivocate but said something like "he would not qualify because of being a husband of more than one wife". If it is no longer in the CD or whatever you use these days, It must have been scrubbed.

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