Hooberus,
for your information, off the top of my head. The word number 136 in your concordance is probably Adon.
which is the ' parent ' word for Lord as you put it.
There are derivative forms of it such as Adonai & Adoni. It is to be noted that both words are spelled the same in hebrew but are clearly differentiated by means of the ' vowel pointing '.
Note what a Jewish Exegesis website says of this matter in a quote from one of their articles on Psalm 110.
DISCUSSION ON PSALM 110 taken from Messiah Truth Website
In the rest of the verse, the Hebrew term (adoni; pronounced "ah-do-NEE"), my lord/master, is mistranslated in the KJV and in many other popular Christian Bibles as my Lord, thereby alluding (via the capital "L") to Jesus, G-d the Son in the Trinity. The Tetragrammaton, , the ineffable title of the Creator that is written in the Hebrew in terms of the four-letter sequence (yod-heh-vav-heh), Y-H-V-H, appears in vs. 1,2,&4, and is punctuated with vowels to be pronounced as "a-do-na-i". This is translated in the KJV as The LORD, alluding to G-d the Father, the second personage in the Trinity, by using all capital letters in order to distinguish it from The Lord, G-d the Son. The actual word (A-donai), another one of several common titles used in the Hebrew Bible for the Creator, appears as the first word in v. 5. It should be noted that in the Hebrew, both (adoni), my lord/master, and (A-donai), G-d, are identically spelled, but are punctuated with different vowels. The KJV, having made the "my Lord" mistranslation of [(adoni), my lord/master] in v. 1, had no choice but to render [(A-donai), G-d] in v. 5 as "The Lord" (i.e., G-d the Son)........
........(1) Since the specific term of interest is (ladoni), all 24 citations are shown. Moreover,
since Psalms 110:1 is one of nine verses among these 24 citation which contain both the
Tetragrammaton , and the term , all nine verses are marked with an asterisk (*).
It is evident from the data in Table IV.B-2 that the KJV translators understood rather well that the term (adoni), with and without attached prepositions, means my lord or my master. Specifically, regarding the term of interest in Psalms 110:1, (ladoni), in 23 cases the KJV rendered it correctly as to/unto my lord/master, and only in Psalms 110:1 they translated it as unto my Lord, with the capital L, which imparts to it the desired Christological significance. This fact becomes even more obvious when one considers the nine cases in which both the Tetragrammaton, , and the term (ladoni) appear in the same verse. On eight occasions, the KJV has LORD & lord/master, and only in one case, at Psalms 110:1, the combination LORD & Lord appears in the KJV.
According to both Biblical and Modern Hebrew, there is no connection between (adoni) and , The L-rd, because the appellation (adoni) is never used to address G-d; it is used exclusively to address a (mortal) man. ( end of quote ).
There is really no doubt about it, Adoni is not the same type of lord as the LORD Adonai.
You say that if this verse and use of Adoni ' could possibly ' just refer to his earthly lordship ( by which I take it that you are conceeding the point as you don't provide any proof against that conclusion). Therefore, I think the point is made that Psalm 110 did not give the Jews any expectation of a DIVINE MESSIAH or indeed GOD in the Flesh.
It is also evident that this verse does not picture Jehovah the Father speaking about Jehovah the Son as the tetragrammaton only appears addressed to the first LORD not the Second lord.
This is such an important point to understand because when the N.T. writers like Paul use the greek word Kyrios to refer to Jesus ; they are simply meaning Adoni and are not meaning Adonai. Thus by calling Jesus Lord in the greek they are not equating him with the Lord God Jehovah.
The confusion is that the greek has only one word for Lord whereas the hebrew has several which mean different things.
You say you 'may' address other points that I made at another time. However, I would like you to address the question I put to you in my last post and I would prefer if you gave me an answer now.
The question was ... If there is one God, who is three persons, then HOW MANY JEHOVAHS ARE THERE ?
cheers,
Dean.
