The following five scriptures lay the foundation stone of Christianity, namely, that Christ died for people's sins. Virtually every Christian denomination on earth accepts these Bible statements without question:
(Matthew 26:28) "....this means my ‘blood of the covenant,’ which is to be poured out in behalf of many for forgiveness of sins."
(John 1:29) "See, the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world!"
(Acts 5:31) "God exalted this one as Chief Agent and Savior to his right hand, to give repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins."
(1 John 2:2) "And he is a propitiatory sacrifice for our sins, yet not for ours only but also for the whole world’s."
(Revelation 1:5) "To him that loves us and that loosed us from our sins by means of his own blood."
However, the WTBTS/Jehovah's Witnesses invalidate these scriptures by their false doctrine that a person's own death wipes out their past sins. They do this by interpreting the word "died" at Romans 6:7 as being literal rather than figurative. This is what their dogma says:
Watchtower May 15th 1982, pp. 8,9; "The Bible explains that at death a person is set free or released from any sins he committed. It says: "He who has died has been acquitted from his sin." (Romans 6:7)
bh p. 214 par. 3 Judgment Day - "According to the apostle John’s vision, "scrolls were opened," and "the dead were judged out of those things written in the scrolls according to their deeds." (Revelation 20:12) Are these scrolls the record of people’s past deeds? No, the judgment will not focus on what people did before they died. How do we know that? The Bible says: "The one who has died has been acquitted from his sin." (Romans 6:7) Those resurrected thus come to life with a clean slate, so to speak."
Is Romans 6:7 to be taken literally or figuratively? Are there two ways to wipe out sins, or just one? The w09 11/1 p. 21 says this - "When it comes to studying words found in the Bible, you also need to know the context in which the word appears."
By reading the surrounding verses - 2,4,6,8, & 11 - as well as the following scriptures - the true context and meaning of "died" is clearly proven to be figurative. Paul was counseling the Roman Christians in chapters 6, 7, & 8 about "dying" to their former, willful and sinful lives.
(Romans 7:4,9,10) "So, my brothers, YOU also were made dead to the Law through the body of the Christ; In fact, I was once alive apart from law; but when the commandment arrived, sin came to life again, but I died. And the commandment which was to life, this I found to be to death."
(Romans 8:10) "But if Christ is in union with YOU, the body indeed is dead on account of sin..."
(Ephesians 2:1) "Furthermore, [it is] YOU [God made alive] though YOU were dead in YOUR trespasses and sins,"
(Galatians 2:19) "As for me, through law I died toward law, that I might become alive toward God..."
(Colossians 2:13) "Furthermore, though YOU were dead in YOUR trespasses and in the uncircumcised state of YOUR flesh, [God] made YOU alive together with him.. . ." (Colossians 3:3) "For YOU died, and YOUR life has been hidden with the Christ in union with God." (2 Timothy 2:11) "Certainly if we died together, we shall also live together;" (Revelation 3:1) "‘I know your deeds, that you have the name that you are alive, but you are dead."
For anyone who is studying with J.W.'s, ask your study conductor these two questions:
"Why did Jesus have to die if a person's own death wipes out their sins?"
"Does this teaching not mean that a mass murderer who is killed by police, automatically receives forgiveness for his evil acts because he's been shot dead?"