There is no early evidence.
Except for all the early evidence right?
Two Bible teachings JW's DON'T know about....
by BoogerMan 24 Replies latest watchtower bible
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Sea Breeze
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Earnest
I can go into some detail about the "evidence" for Polycarp's Letter to the Phillipians.
Nine late Greek manuscripts are extant, all of them belong to the same family and all lack chapters 10-14. These are :
- codex Vaticanus 859 (11th-13th century)
- codex Ottobonianus 348 (14th-16th century)
- codex Laurent. vii. 21 (15th-16th century)
- codex Parisiensis Graec. 937 (16th century)
- codex Casanatensis G. v. 14 (15th century)
- codex Barberinus 7
- codex Neapolitanus II. A. 17 (15th century)
- codex Salmasianus
- codex Andrius
For chapters 10-14 we are reliant on a Latin translation of which we have nine manuscripts:
- Codex Reginensis 81 (11th century)
- codex Trecensis 412 (12th century)
- codex Paris. Bibl. Nat. 1639 (12th century)
- codex Bruxellensis 5510 (12th century)
- codex Oxon. Balliolensis 229 (12th century)
- codex Palatinus 150 (15th century)
- codex Laurent. xxiii. Cod. 20 (15th century)
- codex Vindobonensis 1068 (14th century)
- codex Oxon. Magdalenensis 76 (15th century)
That's it. Eighteen extant manuscripts and nothing earlier than the 11th century.
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Disillusioned JW
The 1898 ARV also says "He who was manifested in the flesh". The 2003 HCSB says "He was manifested in the flesh", which a translators' note saying "3:16 Other mss read God".
The 1991 NAB (a Catholic Bible, of which the translation team included some non-Catholic Christian translators [who are kindly referred to as "separated brothers"]) at 1 Timothy 3:16 says "Who was manifested in the flesh". The translators' annotation/commentary for it says the following which I think is very interesting. '3, 16:Who: the reference is to Christ, who is himself "the mystery of devotion." Some predominantly Western manuscripts read "which," harmonizing the gender of the pronoun with that of the Greek word for mystery; many later (eighth/ninth century on), predominately Byzantine manuscripts read "God," possibly for theological reasons.'
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blondie
Years ago, I posted on here how often the WTS used Jehovah compared to using Jesus/Christ. I was amazed how often Jehovah was used, way more than Jesus. Same in the so-called Kingdom songs. Although, checking the bible, no mention of "Jehovah's witnesses" in the New Testament, only "witnesses of Jesus" or witnessing about Jesus, The WTS tries to use Revelation 1:5, but it falls short compared to all the others about witnessing for Jesus. And Acts 11:26 says "Acts 11:26 New International Version "and when he found him, he brought him to Antioch. So for a whole year Barnabas and Saul met with the church and taught great numbers of people. The disciples were called Christians first at Antioch." Called Christians not Jehovah's witnesses and some versions of this scripture say "by divine providence." (Divine Providence — that is, under God's sovereign guidance and control. " What does the WTS bible say: "After he found him, he brought him to Antioch. So for a whole year they assembled with them in the congregation and taught quite a crowd, and it was first in Antioch that the disciples were by divine providence called Christians" WTS says: “the disciples were by divine providence called Christians.” (Acts 11:26) This was a God-given name that they readily accepted." Why didn't their god by divine providence, call the early followers of Jesus, Jehovah's witnesses?
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Disillusioned JW
Regarding where the Bible says that the kingdom rule of the Messiah will be, notice that the Life Application Study Bible, New American Standard Bible--Updated Edition says the following in its commentary on Psalms 110:2, in reference to "Rule in the midst of Your enemies."
"110:2 prophesies of Christ's reign on the earth (Revelation 6--9)".