Should Jesus be worshipped?

by Melody 47 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Wonderment
    Wonderment

    aqwsed: "In sum, the linguistic, canonical, and historical data converge on a single verdict: the Son is to be worshipped."

    Vanderhoven7: "There is not one example of the disciples or anyone else in scripture limiting their expression of worship of Christ."

    ---

    Yet, the Son himself directed religious worship toward the Father:

    Nevertheless, the hour is coming ... when the true worshippers will worship the Father with spirit and truth, for indeed, the Father is looking for ones like these to worship him. (John 4.23)

    In reply Jesus said to him [Satan]: “It is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’” (Luke 4.8)

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345
    @Wonderment

    Your argument presumes a zero-sum dynamic between the Father and the Son, as though exclusive devotion to the Father were logically or theologically incompatible with the full, cultic worship of the Son. John 4:23 is not an exclusion of the Son from worship, but rather sets the stage for a new mode of worship, “in Spirit and in truth,” inaugurated by the coming of Christ. In Johannine theology, “truth” is not a mere abstraction; it is intimately bound to the person of Jesus, who unambiguously declares, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me” (John 14:6). Far from relativizing the Son or reducing Him to a mere conduit, this identification means that the very act of true worship is now mediated through and oriented by Christ Himself. Hence, the same Gospel repeatedly depicts Jesus as the recipient of proskynesis—formal acts of worship—which He never rebukes (John 9:38; cf. John 20:28). If Johannine Christology intended to delimit worship to the Father alone, this narrative and theological motif would be inexplicable.

    The citation of Luke 4:8 likewise fails as an Arian prooftext. Jesus is here quoting Deuteronomy 6:13, affirming the Shema and the monotheistic devotion that defines Israel’s worship. Yet, what the objector overlooks is that the entire shape of NT devotion to Christ is forged precisely within this monotheistic matrix. The earliest Christians, themselves monolatrous Jews, would have recoiled at any suggestion of creaturely worship that rivaled God. Yet the canonical texts—especially Revelation 5:13-14—portray the Lamb as enthroned alongside the Father, receiving the same doxological acclamation, the same proskynesis, the same universal blessing, honor, glory, and power “forever and ever.” The language is not distributive but unitive: a single throne, a single worship, a single sovereignty. The divine prerogatives that belong to the Lord God of Israel are, astonishingly, extended to the Son without any hint of rivalry or diminution. The singular grammar of Revelation 22:3—“his servants will worship him”—further demonstrates that the Father and the Lamb are recipients of the same cultic service.

    Moreover, the Arian reading misrepresents the logic of Trinitarian theology. The doctrine does not posit three gods, nor does it teach a division of the divine essence. Rather, the one God exists eternally as three co-equal and co-eternal Persons, such that to worship the Son is not to draw honor away from the Father but to honor the Father as He has revealed Himself—in the Son and by the Spirit. As Jesus Himself declares in John 5:23, “That all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him.” This is not a statement of “relative honor” but of equal, unqualified, and divine honor. The economic mission of the Son—His incarnation, ministry, and mediatorial work—unfolds within the unity of the divine will and does not negate His intrinsic divinity or His worthiness of worship.

    Furthermore, the worship offered to Christ in the NT is not merely that of honor or respect, but of the cultic, doxological adoration owed to God alone. Thomas’s acclamation, “My Lord and my God!” (John 20:28), is not an aberration but the climactic confession of the Johannine narrative. The hymnic traditions in Philippians 2:6-11 and Colossians 1:15-20 explicitly ascribe to Christ the name, authority, and creative prerogatives of the Lord God. The cosmic liturgy of Revelation crowns this witness, culminating in the prostration of every creature before both the Father and the Lamb.

    In conclusion, the objection that Jesus’ direction of worship to the Father in a few isolated texts precludes the worship of the Son simply does not withstand the force of the full canonical and theological evidence. The NT’s vision is not one of competitive devotion, but of an integrated, tri-personal worship wherein to worship the Son is, by divine appointment and self-revelation, to worship the Father. The earliest Christian communities—composed of strict monotheists—consistently rendered cultic adoration to Christ precisely because they recognized Him as the definitive manifestation of Israel’s God. To deny the Son this worship is not to uphold biblical monotheism, but to rend asunder the unity of revelation and to impoverish the faith delivered once for all to the saints. The Church’s unwavering confession, expressed in creed, canon, and liturgy, remains: “Glory be to the Father, and to the Son, and to the Holy Spirit, as it was in the beginning, is now, and ever shall be, world without end.”

  • Wonderment
    Wonderment

    Vanderhoven7: "The truth is that ALL MEN SHOULD HONOR THE SON EVEN AS THEY HONOR THE FATHER (Jn.5:22, 23)" (Capital letters, his)

    ---

    I agree! However, the problem facing Trinitarians is that, either by action or tradition, they fail to honor the Father as they honor the Son. Besides, the message here is not that Christ followers should honor the Son to the same degree in a quantitative sense as they do with the Father. Rather, the Jewish audience (in the 1st Century), who traditionally worshipped the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, must now welcome this new arrival sent by The God as venue of salvation, as if it was God himself. (John 3.16; 1 Tim. 2.5; 1 John 5.13)

  • Vanderhoven7
    Vanderhoven7

    @Wonderment

    That Jesus worshiped the Father does not preclude Jesus being entitled to worship...as the closing verses of Revelation 5 declare.

    Jesus invites believers to commune with Him. However, those who see Him merely as a glorious angel do not commune with Him; talk to Him or share their burdens with him.

    "Come unto me!", is the gospel call cascading down the corridors of time. No relationship with Jesus is death. The lives of those who know Jesus will be filled with praises prompted by the Holy Spirit whose role is to glorify the Son for His grace, mercy and salvation.

    For example

    https://youtu.be/HSDHP-Oncxk?si=ksXQ2ITCbXuK1KA0

  • stan livedeath
    stan livedeath

    should jesus be worshipped ?

    sure--why not. Whatever floats your boat.

    Or are you afraid something will happen to you if you dont ?

    Either way--i dont suppose Haysoos could give a toss.

  • Melody
    Melody

    I'm just learning how to operate this board so I don't know how to reply to a specific answer. However, there have been some beautiful, explicit answers to the question of whether Jesus should be worshipped.

    The explanation of προσκυνέω is perfect. The problem is, explaining this to someone who is PIMI is simply not possible. They would not listen that long. I'm trying to figure out how to simplify all of this to counter the argument they have that Jesus should not be worshipped at all. I hope that makes sense.

    Thank you too everyone who has explained this is such detail!

  • Phizzy
    Phizzy

    " Either way--I don't suppose Haysoos could give a toss."

    Absolutely correct, as the "Jesus" of the Gospels is an entirely Fictional Character, as his "Father " Yahweh/ God/. or Allah,. Or even "Jehovah" if you must call this imaginary Character that.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345
    @Wonderment

    Your objection, which seeks to deflate the Christological force of John 5:23 by reducing it to a merely functional or representative “honor,” fundamentally misconstrues both the semantic intent of the Johannine text and the context in which it emerges. The claim that “honoring the Son” is not to be equated with the same quality or substance of honor due to the Father, but is only the reception of a delegated reverence on account of being God’s “venue of salvation,” is demonstrably at odds with the testimony of the text, the witness of early Christian exegesis, and the logic of Second Temple monotheism as appropriated by the New Testament.

    First, the Greek text of John 5:23 (“να πάντες τιμσι τν υἱὸν καθς τιμσι τν πατέρα”) employs kathōs—“just as,” “in the same manner as,” or “to the same extent as”—which is unambiguous in its meaning. The Son is to be honored in the same way, with the same kind and degree of honor as the Father. The suggestion that this is merely a qualitative or relative honor—akin to the status of a royal ambassador—collapses in the face of the context, in which Jesus claims prerogatives that, in the Second Temple Jewish framework, are reserved exclusively to the God of Israel: the giving of life (vv. 21, 26), the exercise of final judgment (v. 22), and the reception of universal homage. Such a claim, in the strictest Jewish monotheistic setting, cannot be interpreted as the bestowal of a subordinate or representational dignity, for the very charge that triggers the ensuing discourse is that Jesus “made himself equal with God” (John 5:18)—a charge the Johannine narrative neither mitigates nor refutes but rather explicates and confirms.

    The invocation of texts such as John 3:16, 1 Timothy 2:5, and 1 John 5:13 as evidence for Jesus’ mediatorial function does not, in any way, diminish the necessity of equal honor. Indeed, the unique mediatorship of Christ is itself predicated upon his ontological singularity as the incarnate Word. Only one who truly shares in the divine identity can serve as the perfect mediator between God and humanity, effecting reconciliation not as a mere intermediary creature but as one who participates fully in the being of the one he reveals and represents (see Heb 1:3; Col 1:19–20). The Son’s being “sent” by the Father does not imply inferiority, but reflects the economic missions that manifest the immanent relations of the Trinity in the history of salvation. The processions within God—begetting and spiration—are the eternal basis for the temporal missions; the Son is “sent” because he is eternally begotten, not because he is a created deputy.

    This lexical maneuver, however, is unsustainable when scrutinized against the broader Johannine context and New Testament theology. In John 5:23, the purpose clause—“that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father”—is explicitly tied to the Father’s entrustment of all judgment to the Son (John 5:22). In Second Temple Judaism, judgment is a prerogative reserved exclusively for God, as seen in texts like Deuteronomy 1:17 (“judgment belongs to God”) and Psalm 50:6 (“God himself is judge”). By assigning this role to Jesus without qualification, the text elevates him beyond a mere representative. The Arian claim that Jesus executes the Father’s judgment as a delegated agent (citing Romans 2:16 and Acts 17:31) overlooks the implication: if judgment is inherently divine, the one who wields it universally must share in that divine authority, not merely reflect it. The honor demanded in John 5:23 is thus not derivative but commensurate with the Father’s, a point reinforced by the warning that failing to honor the Son equates to dishonoring the Father—a linkage implying unity of essence, not just purpose.

    The Arian appeal to kathōs as denoting similarity rather than equality further falters when compared to its usage elsewhere in John. In John 10:30, Jesus declares, “I and the Father are one,” prompting accusations of blasphemy (John 10:33) because it suggests equality with God. The Arian dismissal of this unity as mere alignment of will, not essence, ignores the Jewish reaction and the narrative arc of John, which consistently positions Jesus within the divine identity (e.g., John 1:1, “the Word was God”). Similarly, in John 14:9, "Whoever has seen me has seen the Father," and John 17:21, where Jesus prays for disciples to be one "just as" he and the Father are one, the kathōs construction points to a profound unity. While the Arian notes that disciples are not divine, this misses the distinction: the unity of believers mirrors the Father-Son relationship analogically, whereas the Son’s unity with the Father is foundational, enabling that analogy. The Trinitarian reading of kathōs in John 5:23 as indicating equal honor aligns with this pattern, supported by standard commentaries like Barnes, who notes that honoring the Son "even as" the Father denotes "religious homage" due to God, implying equality.

    The patristic and medieval commentators are virtually unanimous in reading John 5:23 as an explicit assertion of the Son’s consubstantiality and co-equality with the Father. As Barnes rightly notes, the honor to be rendered is not merely civil, nor is it limited to the acknowledgment of messianic function. Rather, it is the same “religious homage” due to God; to withhold it from the Son is to withhold it from the Father, for the Father has willed that his Son should be honored “even as” he himself is. Matthew Henry, Poole, Gill, and the rest—Protestant and Catholic alike—see in this verse not the accommodation of a subordinate “venue of salvation,” but the crystallization of the early Christian conviction that Jesus is worthy of worship as God.

    The very structure of John’s Gospel refutes the notion that Jesus’ honor is merely functional or representative. Thomas’s confession (“My Lord and my God!”—John 20:28), the worship of the risen Christ (e.g., Matt 28:9, 17; John 9:38), and the coordination of the Son with the Father and the Spirit in the baptismal formula (Matt 28:19) are intelligible only if the Son is recipient of the same cultic devotion as the Father. The charge that “Trinitarians fail to honor the Father as they honor the Son” is an unsubstantiated assertion rooted in a misunderstanding of orthodox Trinitarian doctrine. In classical Christian theology, the worship of the Son is not a zero-sum affair that detracts from the Father; rather, as Jesus himself insists, “whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him.” The veneration of Christ is not a detour around the Father, but the divinely willed and instituted mode by which the Father is known and glorified (see John 14:6–9).

    The logic of the Gospel is not that Jesus is to be “welcomed as if he were God” while in reality remaining external to the divine identity, but that in welcoming and honoring Jesus, the believer is, in fact, encountering the one true God manifest in the flesh. John 1:1, 18; 8:58; 10:30–33; 14:9–11; and the entire corpus of high Christology in the New Testament make this point explicit: Jesus is not a merely functional “venue of salvation,” but the definitive self-revelation of the God of Israel.

    The persistent attempt to relativize the honor due to the Son not only fails exegetically and theologically but stands in open contradiction to the narrative arc of John and the unanimous liturgical and doctrinal tradition of the apostolic and patristic church. To refuse the Son the same honor as the Father is, according to the Johannine witness, to refuse the Father himself. The only conclusion compatible with the text, its historical context, and the church’s rule of faith is that Christ is to be accorded the same undivided adoration, worship, and honor as the Father—not in a mitigated, “as if” sense, but in the full reality of his divine personhood.

    The Arian critique also invokes Old Testament precedent, arguing that figures like David were “worshiped” alongside Yahweh (1 Chronicles 29:20) without being divine, suggesting a parallel with Jesus. Yet this misreads the text. In 1 Chronicles 29:20, the Hebrew wayyištawû ("they bowed down") applies to both Yahweh and the king, but the context—a public assembly blessing God and acknowledging David’s reign—distinguishes cultic worship of Yahweh from civil homage to David. The Septuagint renders this with proskuneō for both, but its semantic range, as noted in BDAG and LSJ, spans from reverence to divine worship, determined by context. Here, David receives no sacrificial rites or doxology, and his mortality is soon emphasized (1 Chronicles 29:28). Contrast this with Revelation 5:13-14, where the Lamb (Jesus) shares the throne and receives identical praise—“blessing, honor, glory, and power”—with the Father, a scene echoing Isaiah 45:23’s divine prerogative. The Arian assertion that this is “relative honor” collapses under the unified grammar and cosmic scope, which no Old Testament figure, even David, approaches.

    The Hebrew shachah and the Greek proskuneō indeed have a semantic range that includes both veneration and cultic worship. However, in Israel’s strict monotheistic context, only YHWH was the fitting recipient of cultic, liturgical worship, and the canonical record is unambiguous in its condemnation of offering this kind of honor to anyone but God (e.g., Exod 20:3-5; Deut 6:13-15). Instances of courtly prostration before kings (e.g., 1 Chr 29:20) do not abrogate this fundamental norm, as the narrative, liturgical, and theological contexts always sharply delimit the honor given to human rulers from the exclusive worship given to God. The king, even David or Solomon, is always subordinate, mortal, and strictly never receives prayer, sacrifice, or doxology in the manner YHWH does. By contrast, in the New Testament, the worship of Jesus ascribes to him all the attributes and honors of YHWH, including creation, judgment, the power to forgive sins, and the reception of prayer and liturgical acclamation (see Rev 5:13-14, where “every creature” worships both “him who sits upon the throne and the Lamb,” with no hint of distinction).

    The Old Testament “prophetology” argument, that prophets and kings are “worshipped” and called “lord,” must also be rejected on canonical and theological grounds. Nowhere is cultic, divine worship (i.e., the offering of prayer, hymns, or doxological acclamation) directed to prophets or kings; at most, they receive homage or obedience in their office, never the religious veneration reserved for God alone. The Psalms and prophetic texts cited by the objector are often messianic in their trajectory (e.g., Psalm 2, Psalm 45, Psalm 110), and their highest language is ultimately fulfilled in the divine Messiah, Jesus Christ, as the unanimous patristic and liturgical tradition attests.

    The Arian claim that Jesus’ role as one “sent” (apostellō) negates divinity is a non-sequitur. In John, the sending motif (e.g., John 5:30, 7:16) underscores Jesus’ obedience to the Father’s will, not subordination in essence. Trinitarian theology distinguishes the economic Trinity (roles in salvation) from the immanent Trinity (eternal being), a nuance the Arian flattens. Jesus’ statement, “I can do nothing on my own” (John 5:30), reflects his incarnational dependence, not ontological inferiority, as evidenced by John 1:1 and Philippians 2:6-7, where his preexistent equality with God precedes his self-emptying. The Arian analogy to ambassadors receiving honor “as” their sender fails, for no human envoy claims divine titles (e.g., “Lord,” John 20:28) or receives universal worship without rebuke (cf. Acts 10:26, Revelation 19:10).

    The core claim of the Arian objector is that John 5:23 simply means the Son is to be “honored as a representative,” in the same way that an ambassador is honored as one honors the king, and that the Greek kathōs does not require equality, but only similarity or adequacy of honor. This, we are told, is bolstered by Old Testament passages where human kings receive proskynesis or are “worshipped” alongside God, by New Testament statements about Christ being sent, and by early church practices of honoring bishops.

    The text and context of John 5:23 do not support this reductionist reading. John’s Gospel is consistently high in its Christology, from the prologue (“the Word was God”) through its culminating confessions (e.g., “My Lord and my God!” John 20:28), and nowhere is this clearer than in the very passage under dispute. The setting is a controversy over Jesus’ claim to prerogatives that are, for any Second Temple Jew, uniquely divine: the authority to give life, to execute final judgment, and to receive the very honor owed to the Father. The logic of John’s argument is that the Father “has given all judgment to the Son, so that all may honor the Son just as (kathōs) they honor the Father.” This is not mere functional representation, but a deliberate theological identification: the Son is included in the singular, undivided divine honor that, in the Old Testament, is strictly reserved for YHWH (see Isa 42:8: “My glory I give to no other”). The structure is not distributive (“honor the Father, and also honor His agent”), but participatory and coextensive: the honor due to the Son is to match, in kind and degree, the honor due to the Father. This is underscored by the subsequent warning: “Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.” In Johannine theology, to withhold worship from the Son is not mere discourtesy to the king’s ambassador; it is outright refusal to honor the King Himself, because the Son is one with the Father (John 10:30).

    The attempt to dilute kathōs (“just as”) into a vague indicator of similarity rather than equality is linguistically and contextually flawed. While kathōs can, in some constructions, denote resemblance or analogy, in John 5:23 it marks the explicit criterion and measure of the honor due: not “honor the Son in some comparable way,” but “honor the Son in the same way.” This is reinforced by parallel uses elsewhere in John where the language, though capable of analogical extension, is inextricably tied to ontological or qualitative identity (e.g., “just as the Father has loved me, so I have loved you” [John 15:9]; “that they may be one just as we are one” [John 17:22]). Moreover, as the best patristic and Reformation commentators recognize, it is precisely the radical nature of this claim that caused Jesus’ Jewish opponents to charge him with blasphemy and making himself “equal with God” (John 5:18).

    The invocation of “agency” or “representation” as the exhaustive category for Christ’s role fails to account for the full witness of John and the New Testament as a whole. Jesus is not merely a sent emissary acting on delegated authority, as the text makes clear in John 5:26: “For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself.” The Son possesses “life in himself”—an exclusively divine prerogative—by virtue of his relationship with the Father, not by mere commission. Similarly, in John 1:1-3, the Son is identified as the eternal Word who is both with God and is God, the one through whom all things were made. The giving of judgment to the Son (John 5:22) is not simply functional delegation but the manifestation in history of the Son’s eternal relation to the Father.

    The claim that Jesus “gives away” his glory to his disciples in John 17:22 is a fundamental misunderstanding of the Johannine idiom of “glory.” The glory that Christ bestows upon his followers is not identity with his divine nature, but participation by grace in the filial communion he enjoys with the Father. The entire context of John 17 is the Son’s unique relationship to the Father, and the “glory” given to the disciples is their adoption into this communion through union with Christ. The distinction between “created participation” and “uncreated essence” is a staple of Christian theology and precludes any flattening of categories. The glory of the Son is eternal, the glory given to believers is derivative and participatory (see 2 Peter 1:4: “partakers of the divine nature”—not partakers of the divine identity).

    Regarding the application of titles such as “Lord” (kurios, adonai) to both God and human figures, it must be noted that in the Old Testament, “Lord” as a title is sometimes used for human masters or rulers, but the New Testament’s consistent ascription of kurios to Jesus, especially in doxological and soteriological contexts, draws on the Septuagintal practice of using kurios to translate the Tetragrammaton (YHWH). When the New Testament authors acclaim “Jesus is Lord,” this is not merely bestowing honorifics, but identifying him with the God of Israel.

    The argument that delegated authority nullifies ontological identity is also misplaced. In the economy of salvation, the Son is “sent” by the Father, but this sending presupposes his preexistence, divinity, and participation in the Father’s being (“the Word was with God, and the Word was God”). The biblical motif of “sending” does not reduce the sent one to a mere creature, but in the case of the Son, manifests the eternal Trinitarian life into which believers are incorporated.

    In conclusion, the context, language, and theological trajectory of John 5:23, together with the wider canonical pattern, exclude the possibility that Jesus is to be honored merely as a representative or a prophet. The honor and worship owed to the Son are the honor and worship owed to the one God of Israel, revealed in the communion of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. To honor the Son is to honor the Father; to withhold worship from the Son is to repudiate the Father. Any attempt to deny the Son his divine honor is not fidelity to monotheism, but a refusal of the fullness of the biblical revelation. As John 5:23 and its authoritative commentators declare, “He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him.” This is not an innovation, but the very heart of Christian faith and worship.

    The Arian reinterpretation of John 5:23 as mere representational honor collapses under the weight of its immediate context, the Johannine portrayal of Jesus’ divine identity, and the New Testament’s cultic devotion to him. The Trinitarian affirmation that Jesus is to be worshiped as God coheres with the biblical data and early Christian practice, rendering the Arian objection a selective misreading that cannot sustain its denial of Christ’s divinity.

    John 5:23, properly read, does not provide cover for Arian subordinationism or a diminished Christology. It is a cornerstone of Trinitarian dogma, a proclamation that the one God of Israel is now to be worshipped in the face of Jesus Christ, to the glory of the Father, in the Holy Spirit. Any attempt to dilute or evade this truth stands not only against the witness of Scripture but also against the very logic of Christian faith, worship, and salvation.

  • slimboyfat
    slimboyfat
    Your objection, which seeks to deflate the Christological force …

    Yet more AI crap. Do you have a single thought of your own?

  • Blotty
    Blotty

    Lets get some actaul credible sources in here that are not AQ's AI generated garbage that does not fact check itself. AQ you may aswell take your leave rn, I wont read your responces, just predict what you do respond & either re-paste my answers or cite sources. (Yes your Ai text is that predictable now.)

    Thank you Wonderment and Slim for your contribution, they are well thought out.. John 4:24 is esp interesting.. of course AQ is going to twist this passage, however the text is plain and clear.. So is Origens writings and Justin Martyrs.

    AQ's however are about as credible as Manteys out and out lies about the WT (not very credible)

    lets also note that Israel's king is also addressed as "God" If we want to go by one possible translation for psalms 45:6 ("God is your throne" is also possible - check Westcott's commentary)

    One sources say its done not in a polythestic sense, AQ would have you believe that this is the case, the harsh truth is they can provide no such evidence to support this, it is clear that the bible writers were in some- sense henotheists as was Hippolytus, Clement & Origen

    Clement comments on "men becoming God" (?) - I would think Clement would mean "a god"

    Athanasius quotes this verbatim so we can include him in this list aswell.

    anyway to the credible source, AQ cannot call me rude or disrespectful for this, because they AI text generate, So I will dump a bunch of links and say they disprove him, which they do.

    https://www.google.co.nz/books/edition/The_Proskynesis_of_Jesus_in_the_New_Test/Y_WxDwAAQBAJ?hl=en&gbpv=1&dq=%CF%80%CF%81%CE%BF%CF%83%CE%B5%CE%BA%E1%BD%BB%CE%BD%CE%B7%CF%83%CE%B1%CE%BD+%CF%84%E1%BF%B7+

    %CE%BA%CF%85%CF%81%E1%BD%B7%E1%BF%B3+%CE%BA%CE%B1%E1%BD%B6+%CF%84%E1%BF%B7+%CE%B2%CE%B1%CF%83%CE%B9%CE%BB%CE%B5%E1%BF%96+meaning&pg=PA28&printsec=frontcover

    - While I do not claim the king receives divine worship, it is striking God and the king are grouped together under one verb.

    It should also be noted under the mosaic law [active until Jesus died] It would not be idolotry if God commanded his people to "worship" (with the elastisity it had in those times, not Aq's preference) would not constitute idolotry.

    - https://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2009/09/heb-18.html

    [no AQ I dont care about teh "dung bettle" method accusation, you do the " spam garbage" method - thse citations are in context, go and check them yourself]

    " But while it is true of the Hebrew of the Old Testament that there is no word which refers alone to Divine Worship this is not true of the Septuagint Greek nor of the Greek of the New Testament, for in both προσκυνέω has always its general meaning, sometimes applying to the creature and sometimes to the Creator; but λατρεύω is used to denote divine worship alone, as St. Augustine pointed out long ago." - God and teh King received worship.. not divine worship, worship

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