Hello. I'm new to the forum and I have a question about what was said in a 16-year-old thread at this forum. A poster by the name of Leolaia said...
The author of 2 Peter did not recognize that Jude 6 was an allustion to 1 Enoch (just as he did not realize that Jude 9 was an allusion to the Assumption of Moses and thus rephrased it incoherently in 2 Peter 2:11), or he may have objected to the Enochic reference (just as Jude 14-15 was omitted in 2 Peter 2). In either case, the author overlooked the Enochic allusion and instead recognized the passage as an allusion of Hesiod and thus embellished the passage from Jude with an allusion to Hesiod's Tartarus.
TARTARUS - please explain why it is in the Bible (jehovahs-witness.com)
However, from 18 years ago, she said...
The Jewish Hellenistic traditions that 2 Peter is dependent on equates the angels that sinned with the Titans and their place of bondage as Tartarus. As I showed in an earlier thread (http://www.jehovahs-witness.com/10/64432/993359/post.ashx#993359), 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6 are explicitly dependent on the first-century B.C. apocalypse 1 Enoch which elaborated considerably on the fallen angel traditions. Enochian allusions run throughout the two Christian passages in the NT.
Tartarus in 2 Peter 2:4 (jehovahs-witness.com)
Therefore, which is correct? The author of 2 Peter and Jude did not realize that the verses that they wrote were allusions to apocrypha literature, or they did realize that their verse were allusions to apocrypha literature? Thank you.