David_jay my angle is from work in semiotics and cognition rather than strictly from philology but I'd be very interested to see what the scholarly debate is on your point of view. do you have it to hand?
The Creation of Jesus
David_Jay to avoid talking past one another and to avoid making your life harder (you have said that you are dealing with some health issues) I came across this article regarding Jewish time. The reason I am sharing it is because I wonder if the different conceptualisations of time may need to be considered when addressing John 1:1. the person who wrote the article brings in aspects of human cognition and how it is experienced that seem relevant to our discussion.
Here is a starter list. There is more I could supply, but this should suffice. You can look up the verses in question in these volumes.
1. The Oxford Annotated Bible with Apocrypha (NRSV)
2. The Oxford Catholic Study Bible, NABRE
3. The Common English Bible, Study Edition
4. The Collegeville Commentary Series
5. The Jewish Annotated New Testament, NRSV
6. The Jerusalem Bible, with footnotes
7. The New Jerusalem Bible, with footnotes
8. The Jewish Study Bible with NJPS text
As to the time issue, the answer is still no in regards to John 1:1. The Greek words don't have any meaning of eternity as currently understood by Christians. While Hellenistic thinking was prevailing, this was not formulated and applied to Christology until the Arian challenge, far long after John had been written.
The critical notes in the above works should suffice to help explain more.
thanks David_jay I'll take a look later. btw I'm not at all committed to the idea of eternity in John 1:1 in nv/being. what i am trying to do is understand why later trinitarians saw implications of the godhead of Jesus in John. Perhaps it was John 1:14-18 rather than John 1.1.