You are doing a WT special here, i.e, reading something into the text that simply is not there.You say:'Luke 14.25-33 is a series of hyperboles.
'Jesus is not demanding a literal application of verse 33 otherwise he would be asking to literally hate their parents...'.
I suggest you read http://jesusmyth.net/christianhypocrisy.html on my website.
Your second sentence reminds me of a rambling disjointed JW 'explanation', leap-frogging from one verse/subject to another.
Acts 2:44f says having things in common was the practice of the early church - there is no mention anywhere in Acts that this was only related to Jewish Christians or was torah-related and did not apply to Gentile believers. Selling property and giving this over to the church was an obligation on the first Christians as Acts 2: 44-45 and 5: 1-10 testifies.
When Annas and Sapphira failed to hand over all the proceeds of their property sale, why does Peter not mention the law when he condemns them? He does not simply because this was not the reason why the Christians sold their possessions and handed over the proceeds to the church.
In the case of Matt 5, surely if Jesus had 'really meant' 'Be as cooperative as you can', he would have said that? The whole statement in Matt 5:38-42 is one instruction after another to be absolutely passive in all things even if taken to the extreme (including giving up wealth when asked) and confirms the poverty demonstrated by Jesus (e.g., Matt 8:20) and the apostles (Matt 10:9-10).