586 bce for Jerusalem's destruction - when do gentile times end?

by hamsterbait 13 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • hamsterbait
    hamsterbait

    1933.

    OMG

  • Londo111
    Londo111

    When one looks at the context of Luke 21:24, the times of the Gentiles end in 70 AD.

  • hamsterbait
    hamsterbait

    Listen Luscious Londo:

    We ain't talkin' religions of Centauri Prime. Our Great Creator has only ONE dick. OKAY???

    Get out your hair kit.

    HB

  • sir82
    sir82

    586 BCE + 2520 year-days - "no 0 year" takes you to 1935.

    That's also the year the "great crowd" was "identified" by Booze Rutherford. I've sometimes thought that the WTS could have saved face on their embarrassing 607 BCE teachings, and bought themselves 21 extra years of the old "this generation" teaching, by tying the 2 events together.

    But they are like an idiot dog who has a firm hold of its own tail in its mouth. The more it hurts, the tighter they clamp down.

  • Ding
    Ding

    If the "Gentile times" ended in the 20th century, why don't the "Gentiles" know it yet?

  • trujw
    trujw

    If the idiots would of just kept russels prophecies about the Jews and Palestine at least they could have been right about one thing. Dumb bastards couldn't even do that right.

  • Bobcat
    Bobcat

    Ding:

    If the "Gentile times" ended in the 20th century, why don't the "Gentiles" know it yet?

    That's exactly right. Nor is it likely that the phrase is referring to a specific pre-announced time period, for the entire phrase ("Gentile times") is anarthrous. The Baker Exegetical Commentary on the NT comments, "More likely, the "times of the Gentiles" is a general way to describe the current period in God's plan, when the Gentiles are prominent but that will culminate in judgment on those nations."

    C. O. Jonsson (GTR, p.279) says, "In Greek, the use of the definite article would point to a definite and well-known period. Since, however, the definite article is not found in the Greek text, the phrase "times of Gentiles" can refer to an imprecise period rather than one specific period already known to the readers (or listeners).

    If there is a relationship to the book of Daniel, it probably corresponds to the image in Daniel 2 and ends when the image is destroyed and ground to powder. If so, then the Society is, in general terms, close with regard to when they started (the Babylonians), but somewhat off as to when they end.

    COJ pointed out the anarthrous nature of the phrase in his book GTR.

  • Think About It
    Think About It

    Did any other religions use a 2,520 years Gentile Times theology & chronology? Seems like I remember CTRussell getting the idea from the Adventist.

  • Pterist
  • Pterist
    Pterist

    The 2520 cult for further reading.

    http://loudcry.org/sda/archives/5489

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