And yet still nothing that could lead us to the conclusion that Nebuchadnezzar made Jehoiakim his vassal in Jehoiakim's 8th year.
Why do you say this? Jehoiakim had been a vassal of Egypt before the king of Egypt was defeated in 625 BC. This would have been the eighth year of Jehoiakim's rulership and would also have been the beginning of Jehoiakim's three-year vassalage for Babylon.
625 [BC] is now Jehoiakim's 8th year of rulership??? Make your mind up.
Either read what I wrote in response to one of your posts, and even emphasized again, or don't read what I wrote at all; your choice. You have isolated a fragment of what I posted to you from a previous post to make it say something I wasn't really saying at all, in view of the fact that I emphasized and even underlined in my previous post the fact that the defeat of the Pharaoh by Nebuchadnezzar occurred in 625 BC say at all. The year 625 BC is the year when the king of Egypt was defeated by Nebuchadnezzar, but Jehoiakim's vassalage for the king of Babylon occurred in 620 BC; the year 620 BC was Jehoiakim's eighth year. For your convenience, what follows is the exchange to which I refer that you evidently ignored:
Where in the Bible do you get that Jehoiakim became Babylon's vassal in his 8th year?
My answer is based on 2 Kings 24:1, which I did not quote in my previous response:
"In his days Neb·u·chad·nez´zar the king of Babylon came up, and so Je·hoi´a·kim became his servant for three years. However, he turned back and rebelled against him."
I would ask that you not ignore this time this portion of my response to your question as to 'where in the Bible do I learn that Jehoiakim became Babylon's vassal in his 8th year.'
Just as I had written in my previous message in response to your question, we learn upon reading Jeremiah 46:2 that "it was during the fourth year of the reign of King Jehoiakim's reign that the king of Babylon, Nebuchadnezzar (Nebuchadrezzar), was victorious over the king of Egypt, Pharaoh Necho; this was in the year 625 BC.
"The next year, in 624 BC, Nebuchadnezzar officially ascended to the throne following his father's death, Nebuchadnezzar's first regnal year, which was his second accession year, and in his fifth regnal year as king, Nebuchadnezzar made Jehoiakim his vassal king; this was during Jehoiakim's eighth year in 620 BC. (2 Kings 24:1) However, Jehoiakim's rebellion some three years later -- that would be the years 620 BC, 619 BC and 618 BC -- resulted in both Jerusalem being besieged by Babylon and in Jehoiakim's death in 618 BC, so that his son, Jehoiachin, then became Babylon's vassal king during Nebuchadnezzar's seventh regnal year until Jehoiachin's vassalage ended after about three months in 617 BC. (2 Kings 24:11, 12)"
Please pay attention. There is no mention made in 2 Kings 24:1 of what year in Jehoiakim's reign Nebuchadnezzar made him his vassal. 2 Kings 24:1 does not support your claim that it was his 8th year. Do you understand?
... as to Jehoiakim's vassalage to Babylon, I made the following statement in this thread --Now the first time that Nebuchadnezzar had besieged Jerusalem was in 620 BC during Jehoiakim's third year of his vassal kingship to Babylon over Judah. (Daniel 1:1)
-- and note that in my statement I cite Daniel 1:1 as support for my statement, which states:
"In the third year of the kingship of Je·hoi'a·kim the king of Judah, Neb·u·chad·nez'zar the king of Babylon came to Jerusalem and proceeded to lay siege to it."
This does not support your statement that Nebuchadnezzar besieged Jerusalem in Jehoiakim's 3rd year of vassalage - this is a classic example of you not believing the Bible's testimony. It states, very plainly, that Nebuchadnezzar besieged Jerusalem in Jehoiakim's 3rd year of kingship. Using WTS time, this would date the siege to 625/624.
Why not? If Jehoiakim was in his eighth year of rulership as king of Judah in 620 BC when he began his three-year vassalage for Babylon, and Jehoiakim was dead after having served some three years of vassalage for Babylon in 618 BC (620 BC - 618 BC is three years) in which year Nebuchadnezzar besieged Jerusalem, then "the third year" of Jehoiakim's kingship to which reference is made at Daniel 1:1 would be Jehoiakim's eleventh year (8 years + 3 years), and it was in this "third year of the kingship of Jehoiakim" that "the king of Babylon came to Jerusalem and proceeded to lay siege to it." Jehoiakim's son, Jehoiachin's three-month vassalage for Babylon began "in the third year" of his father, Jehoiakim's vassalage to Babylon, and Jehoiachin's vassalage ended in 617 BC.
You've mentioned three things in your post -- "red herrings, misinformation and ad hominem" -- and while I've not guilty of dispensing any of these, I believe you would actually understand what it is I have been saying to you here were you to stop reading more into what I've written here than I have written. I'm telling you here that when you read Daniel 1:1 and come away from reading it thinking that reference to "the third year of the kingship of Jehoiakim" refers to anything other than Jehoiakim's vassalage to Babylon, then you do not understand what Daniel is saying in this verse. Daniel 1:1 refers to Jehoiakim's vassalage to Babylon, but Jehoiakim ruled as king over Judah for some eleven years, not just for three years.
To understand Daniel 1:1, one must interpret the verse as I have done here. You choose to read Daniel 1:1 literally, and that's fine, but were you guided by holy spirit, it wouldn't permit you to read this verse literally.