What is the greatest act of love God has done? Interresting question for non-trinitarians

by teel 16 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • miseryloveselders
    miseryloveselders

    I'll have to check that out later. Thanks for the info though. Here's what the WT CD Rom states on it..........I'm getting ready to hang it up for the night. I'll definately check out your link tommorrow.

    ***

    Rbi8p.15806CWiththeBloodofGod’sOwnSon

    ***

    6C

    WiththeBloodofGod’sOwn

    Son

    Ac

    20:28—Gr.,δι?το?α?ματοςτο?

    ?δ?ου

    (di·a′

    touhai′ma·tostou

    i·di′ou)

    1903 “with the blood of His own Son” TheHolyBiblein

    ModernEnglish, by

    F. Fenton, London.

    1950 “with the blood of his own [Son]” NewWorldTranslation

    oftheChristianGreek

    Scriptures, Brooklyn.

    1966 “through the death of his own Son” Today’sEnglish

    Version, American Bible

    Society, New York.

    Grammatically, this passage could be translated as in the KingJamesVersion and DouayVersion, “with his own blood.” That has been a difficult thought for many. That is doubtless why ACDSy h (margin) (followed by Moffatt’s translation) read “the congregation of the Lord,” instead of “the congregation of God.” When the text reads that way it furnishes no difficulty for the reading, “with his own blood.” However, ?BVg read “God” (articulate), and the usual translation would be ‘God’s blood.’

    The Greek words το? ?δ?ου (toui·di′ou) follow the phrase “with the blood.” The entire expression could be translated “with the blood of his own.” A noun in the singular number would be understood after “his own,” most likely God’s closest relative, his only-begotten Son Jesus Christ. On this point J. H. Moulton in AGrammarofNewTestamentGreek, Vol. 1 (Prolegomena), 1930 ed., p. 90, says: “Before leaving ?διος [i′di·os] something should be said about the use of ? ?διος [hoi′di·os] without a noun expressed. This occurs in Jn 1 11 13 1 , Ac 4 23 24 23 . In the papyri we find the singular used thus as a term of endearment to near relations . . . . In Expos. VI. iii. 277 I ventured to cite this as a possible encouragement to those (including B. Weiss) who would translate Acts 20 28 ‘the blood of one who was his own.’”

    Alternately, in TheNewTestamentintheOriginalGreek, by Westcott and Hort, Vol., 2, London, 1881, pp. 99, 100 of the Appendix, Hort stated: “it is by no means impossible that ΥΙΟΥ [hui·ou′, “of the Son”] dropped out after ΤΟΥΙΔΙΟΥ [toui·di′ou, “of his own”] at some very early transcription affecting all existing documents. Its insertion leaves the whole passage free from difficulty of any kind.”

    The NewWorldTranslation renders the passage literally, adding “Son” in brackets after ?δ?ου to read: “with the blood of his own [Son].”

  • Chalam
    Chalam

    The correct rendering of this verse is not a problem if you have the correct rendering of John 1:1 etc. The bible does not contradict itself or need words inserted, that is falsehood.

    Acts 20:28 (New International Version)

    28 Keep watch over yourselves and all the flock of which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers. Be shepherds of the church of God, which he bought with his own blood.

    John 1:1 (New International Version)

    1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

    Blessings,

    Stephen

  • PSacramento
    PSacramento

    The greek term for "own" in Acts 20:28 is "idios" and means:

    pertaining to one's self, one's own, belonging to one's self

    So since the subject is "haima" which is blood, the verse is stating that the Chruch of God was purchased with God's own blood.

    20:28 προσ?χετε ?αυτο?ς κα? παντ? τ? ποιμν?? ?ν ? ?μ?ς τ? πνε?μα τ? ?γιον ?θετο ?πισκ?πους ποιμα?νειν τ?ν ?κκλησ?αν το? θεο? ?ν περιεποι?σατο δι? το? α?ματος το? ?δ?ου

    thechurchg 1577?κκλησ?α ekklesia
    ofGodg 2316θε?ς theos
    which g 3739hos
    Hepurchasedg 4046περιποι?ω peripoieo
    withHisowng 2398?διος idios
    blood. g 129α?μα haima
  • dothemath
    dothemath

    If you believe God laid down his life for mankind.........that means God was actually dead........a total impossibility.

  • snowbird
    snowbird

    Genesis 18:14 "Is anything too hard for God?" MSG

    Luke 1:37 "Nothing, you see, is impossible with God." MSG

    Sylvia

  • undercover
    undercover
    If you believe God laid down his life for mankind.........that means God was actually dead........a total impossibility.

    Not that I accept the Bible as more than a bunch of fables, myths and legends anymore...but for shits n giggles:

    If God and Jesus were one, that means that God was dead for three days after Jesus/God was executed.

    So, God was dead for three days. Leaving aside for the time being that it made it possible for mere mortals to kill an immortal...

    Who resurrected God? He's dead, he can't resurrect himself...can he? If he could, he wasn't really dead, he was only mostly dead. If he wasn't dead, then Jesus wasn't dead...so his sacrifice meant nothing because he didn't die for our sins.

    Not that it matters. It's all fantasy anyway... So arguing about the trinity is like Wesley arguing with Vizzini...

    "You truly have a dizzying intellect"

    "Wait till I get going!"

  • stillajwexelder
    stillajwexelder

    God created Jesus is the 1st palce so he could do the greatest act of love. By definition almighty god -the sovereign of the whole universe could and can not die. IRRELEVANT

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