LUKE 18;19

by iknowall558 14 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • NeonMadman
    NeonMadman

    (the Son of God - hence God)

    HUH???

    The term "son of" appears to have been idiomatic in the time of Christ, carrying more profound implications than the JW's would allow. They understand the term in its most literal sense, i.e., literally the 'offspring of'. However, we can compare other usages in the NT: obviously, James and John were not the literal offspring of thunder (Mark 3:17). But there was something in their personalities that bespoke the nature of thunder, resulting in Jesus' applying to them the nickname, "Sons of Thunder." Similarly, Judas was not the literal offspring of destruction (John 17:12), but again, something in him carried the nature or essence of destruction. So when Jesus claimed to be the Son of God, the meaning to the Jews was more profound than simply saying He had received life from God, as the JW's would have us believe. He was claiming to share the very nature of God, thus to be God Himself, and that is how the Jews often understood Him and why they wanted to kill Him for blasphemy. Just as the title, "Son of Man" emphasized his nature as a human being, the term "Son of God" emphasized His deity.

  • Narkissos
    Narkissos

    NeonMadman: you might be interested in this old thread: http://www.jehovahs-witness.net/watchtower/bible/66342/1/Son-of-God-some-background (although the formatting was messed by a JWD bug, I think it is still mostly readable).

    As a side point (to what is already a side discussion from the present topic), there is much more to the title "Son of Man" in the Gospels than Jesus' "nature as a human being". The latter sense exists (e.g. Matthew 8:20) but combines with a completely different one from the Enochian tradition, referring to the heavenly figure in charge, among other things, of the final judgement.

  • NeonMadman
    NeonMadman

    Thanks, Nark. I'm printing that page out for later reading. I didn't mean to imply that the meaning of the term "Son of Man" was restricted to a reference to Jesus' humanity, but I believe that was certainly one of its functions, in contrast to the term "Son of God." Nonetheless, there was also clearly an eschatological meaning to the term as you indicate.

  • isaacaustin
    isaacaustin

    Why do you call me good?” Jesus replies. “Nobody is good, except one, God.”

    Jesus is putting the man in a position where he is forced to recognize who he is. Jesus did not deny he was good. He simply asked a question and showed its ramifications. The man recognized Jesus as good...Jesus asked the man why he called him good. If Jesus is good, he is also God.

  • iknowall558
    iknowall558

    thanks folks ......this is a lot clearer to me now.....I understand.

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