Why did Jews cut their willies?!!

by Spectrum 43 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • Spectrum
    Spectrum

    What demented person came up with this idea? They could have just cut their cheeks like the West Africans did?

  • cyberdyne systems 101
    cyberdyne systems 101

    To be different to the other nations around them, funny how the WTS pick and choose which OT things to follow and which to not isnt it.

    CS 101

  • Spectrum
    Spectrum

    Cyber that is a good point.
    All their anti-rhetoric on sex, you'ed think that cutting their dicks to lose sensitivity would play towards their belief that sex is dirty.

  • gumby
    gumby

    Somewhere on this board I have a thread about dingers where all this is discussed. I'm just glad the jews didn't cut their nutsacks and lose their balls er else Jesus would'nt never have been born.

    Gumnonturtlehead

  • stevenyc
    stevenyc

    South Park episode - Ike's wee wee

    Kyle's adopted Canadian brother, Ike, is to be circumcised. In an effort to protect Ike's "fireman," the boys stick him on a train to Nebraska. The boys learn that the point of circumcision is actually to make the pee-pee look bigger, so they happily bring Ike back from Nebraska.

    Quote: "Chopping off wee-wee's is not cool !"

    steve

  • Narkissos
    Narkissos

    Circumcision was a very widespread practice (probably as a puberty passage ritual, cf. the circumcision of Ismael when he was 13 years old, Genesis 17:25) long before Judaism gave it its own theological interpretation (as "sign of the covenant" with Abraham or Moses for instance) and specific rules (e.g. on the eighth day, instead of puberty). Even in the Bible it is acknowledged as a practice common to Egypt, Edom, Ammon, Moab (Jeremiah 9:24f). The "uncircumcised," especially the Philistines, were originally the exception (e.g. 1 Samuel 17:25). Only in the post-exilic period, when the practice disappeared in the vicinity of Israel, could it be thought as a distinctive Jewish feature.

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia

    The Hebrews probably picked up the custom from the Egyptians who colonized Palestine in the sixteenth to fourteenth centuries BC:

  • proplog2
    proplog2

    Obviously God was collecting foreskins.

  • lovelylil
    lovelylil

    Narkissos,

    why do you think that the Jews stated that the specific act of circumcision would be the sign of their covenant with God as apposed to some other ritual?

    Could it be that the pagan nations did it for an immoral reason, like false God worship and God used the custom the Jews already were used to but gave it a different meaning? I find this interesting and the scripture you brought out in Jeremiah as I never before knew that the other nations also had this custom.

    Could it be similar to the church making pagan days holy (Christmas, Easter, etc.) thus giving it a different meaning? I would like your opinion on this and of course any others can reply too. Thanks in advance, Lilly

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia
    why do you think that the Jews stated that the specific act of circumcision would be the sign of their covenant with God as apposed to some other ritual?

    The early history of circumcision among the Hebrews and the reasons for its later social importance unfortunately belong to the mists of the past. The Egyptians circumcised themselves at puberty as extant sources show, and the probable social function for circumcision in this case was as a rite of passage. The linguistic evidence also indicates that the ancestors of the Hebrews circumcised young men of marriageable age. The words for "bridegroom" (chtn) and "father-in-law" (chwtn) are connected with circumcision in other Semitic languages (cf. Arabic chatana "circumcise"; "father-in-law" being literally "his circumciser"), and the obscure designation of a circumcised person as a "bridegroom of blood" (chtn-dmym) in Exodus 4:25-26 also reflects this language. This suggests that at some time in the past, circumcision was used as a feature of the marriage ritual....with the father-in-law circumcising his new son-in-law. Considering the sexual function of marriage, the intention may have been to prepare the man for vaginal intercourse (this also would explain how circumcision is associated with "cleanliness"). Furthermore, since it was used to seal the marriage contract, its covenantal function could have also originated from this practice. That's about the best explanation I can think of....there is just not enough known about the customs of the Middle and Late Bronze Age.

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