"End of the Gentile Times" Meaning Was Changed...

by deaconbluez 1 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • deaconbluez
    deaconbluez

    A good point that Captives of a Concept by Don Cameron makes is that during Russell's time, the "end of the gentile times" which would take place in 1914 was to signify the complete end of world government's rule. After that came and went, in order to not have to admit that they were falsely prophecying, they changed the teaching to mean that it was the end of their "uninterrupted rule". Therefore, they had to conclude that in 1914 an invisible Jesus Christ who was invisibly present as he was being invisibly enthroned to begin his invisible rule rom the invisible heavens.

    The Witnesses are very good at molding doctrine to fit their pre-concieved idea of what the "truth" is.

  • LayingLow
    LayingLow

    That brings a question to mind. If the meaning then became "an uninterrupted gentile rule", how did God interrupt in 539 by overthrowing the Babylonians by means of Cyrus of Persia? I'm just beginning to research the 1914 topic.... In the past I've focused mainly on doctrine, not eschatology(which I suppose to some is the majority of their doctrine). Also, most of the other prophecies concerning gentiles for that time (Egypt, 40: Tyre:70) would not have acted without divine intervention until at least 548 B.C. and probably later than that (depending on your chronology).

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