@Duran
Thank you for raising the question again with greater clarity—although it’s unfortunate that you continue to couch your remarks in unnecessary mockery rather than genuine theological dialogue. Still, I’ll engage your point sincerely and respectfully, because the question of divine identity matters deeply. You're asking whether, in Revelation 3:21, we should interpret the pronouns “I,” “me,” and “my” as referring to Jesus, and “his” and “his throne” as referring to YHWH God. You’re satisfied that I affirmed the grammar, and you take that as a concession that there are two separate beings with separate thrones and identities. But what you’re missing is the theological content behind this grammatical distinction, which is where your argument falls apart.
Yes, Jesus is speaking in the first person in Revelation 3:21. He says, “I also conquered and sat down with my Father on his throne.” That’s straightforward on the surface. But if you suppose this proves ontological separation between Jesus and the Father—if you assume this distinction in person means Jesus is not divine—then you’re importing an a priori assumption that only the Father is Jehovah. That assumption is not derived from the text but from Watchtower doctrine. It’s part of what we call JW theological “Newspeak,” where the divine name “Jehovah” is treated as exclusive to the Father, while the Son must be something other—lesser, created, angelic. This linguistic framing is loaded, not neutral.
Let’s be very clear: Trinitarian theology never claims the Son is the same person as the Father. We affirm distinction of persons. But distinction of person is not distinction of essence. In Revelation 3:21, Jesus, as the exalted Son, speaks from the vantage of his glorified human nature, which he assumed in the Incarnation. As true man, he conquered through obedience unto death (Philippians 2:8), and he is now enthroned at the right hand of the Father (Hebrews 1:3; Psalm 110:1). Yet that same enthronement is shared: in Revelation 22:1, there is one throne—the throne of God and of the Lamb—not two thrones for two gods. This is not a slip of grammar. It is a theological affirmation that God and the Lamb rule as one, in shared divine majesty. The singular throne implies unity of essence.
So yes, the "I" in Revelation 3:21 refers to Jesus, and “his” refers to the Father. But what you’re assuming—falsely—is that this linguistic distinction must mean Jesus is not divine. That’s where your reasoning collapses. By your logic, if two persons are distinct, then they must have different natures, different essences. But this is not true even in the realm of human beings, much less in Trinitarian theology. A father and son are different persons but share the same nature. When the New Testament reveals that the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Spirit is God—and yet God is one—this is not a contradiction; it is a revelation of God’s tri-personal nature.
Moreover, the divine name “Jehovah” or “Yahweh” is not restricted in Scripture to the Father. That is a Watchtower invention. In the New Testament, texts that originally referred to YHWH in the Old Testament are often applied to Jesus. Philippians 2:10–11 quotes Isaiah 45:23, where YHWH says, “To me every knee shall bow,” and applies it to Jesus: “every knee will bow... and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord.” This is not giving Jesus honor “next to” Jehovah. It’s assigning to Jesus the divine prerogative and worship due to YHWH alone. Similarly, in John 12:41, we are told that Isaiah “saw His glory and spoke of Him.” This refers to Isaiah 6, where Isaiah saw the glory of YHWH. John tells us that Isaiah was seeing Jesus.
You speak of Jesus and Jehovah as if they are mutually exclusive. But that dichotomy is foreign to Scripture. Jesus is not a second god beside Jehovah. He is Jehovah revealed in the flesh. The Tetragrammaton does not name a single person—it names the divine being, the essence of God, in which Father, Son, and Holy Spirit subsist. So when we say “Jesus is Jehovah,” we are not saying “Jesus is the Father.” That would be a heresy known as modalism. We are saying Jesus shares the divine essence—He is YHWH in person as the eternal Son.
Your reduction of identity to pronouns ignores this reality. Yes, Jesus distinguishes himself from the Father. He— as a man—prays to Him, obeys Him, sits at His right hand. These distinctions are not evidence against the Trinity—they are part of it. The early Church didn’t "invent" this framework; it recognized it in the pattern of Scripture. You are offended that I bring in Trinitarian theology—but I must, because the grammar you appeal to cannot be understood apart from it.
To sum up: I agreed grammatically that Jesus refers to “I” and the Father to “his.” But I do not agree with your assumption that this disproves the Trinity or Christ’s deity. That assumption is not found in the grammar—it is imported from a theology that isolates “Jehovah” to the Father alone. When Jesus sits with the Father on His throne, He is not sitting as an ontologically subordinate angel. He is reigning as the exalted Lord, the divine Son, who shares the Father’s glory (John 17:5) and essence (Hebrews 1:3). Revelation 3:21 is not a problem for Trinitarians—it is a witness to Christ’s glorified humanity and shared divine rule.
Your argument is not grammatical. It is theological. And as such, it must be tested against the whole counsel of Scripture—not against a narrow Watchtower lexicon. Jesus is not merely beside Jehovah. He is “Emmanuel”—God with us.