A shared treasure of Judaism and Christianity, an important element of faith is the name of God; Christians have no particular objection to the name "Jehovah", but they do not insist on it, because it is a theological term.
The Hebrew language originally only recorded consonants, and it was only supplemented with vowel marks in the early Middle Ages. Since when reading the letters YHWH, they always said Adonai ("Lord") instead of Yahweh, the vowels of Adonai were written above and below the consonants YHWH in the Middle Ages (1520, Galatinus). Thus the form "Jahovah", "Jehovah" or "Jehovah" was created, which sounds impossible to Hebrew ears.
This theological term has nevertheless become quite widespread in theological literature, in translations of the Old Testament (!), and in poetry over the centuries.
In Exodus 3:14, "I Am Who I Am" (in Hebrew: ehyeh asher ehyeh), or "I Am" (ehyeh) himself sends Moses to the people. The meaning of the introduction is obvious from the context: God is who He is, and He doesn't have a name in the sense of the pagan gods, who could be invoked and influenced by their names, but He is always with them and will be.
"I Am" is none other than the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, because in verse 15 he continues: "...YHWH, the God of your fathers...". The origin and pronunciation of the word YHWH (approx. Yahweh) is highly debated among experts. The Watchtower has adopted the interpretation that this is the causative form (hifil) of the old, rare version of the verb to be (havah), which would mean: "the Creator"; YHWH in Israeli translations is Adonai ("Lord"), Shaddai ("Almighty").
The Jews were not afraid of "superstitiously" pronouncing the name, but of unnecessary invocation of the Person behind it, reckless, insignificant, aimless, or malicious mention (the "in vain" in Exodus 20:7 refers to this). Understandably, due to their terrifying experiences with God, they avoided the "vain" use of God's name.
The Jews copied the Scripture letter by letter, but certain errors occurred; when the scribes noticed this, they indicated the correct reading with marginal notes, thus distinguishing between the ketib ("written") and the qere ("to be read") text. However, they did not mark God's name with a special qere because they expected everyone to know: if they read YHWH with their eyes, they should say Adonai ("the Lord") with their mouth. Jews still often refer to God simply as "the Name" (ha-Shem).
If Jesus in the synagogue (Luke 4:16-21) had pronounced the Name while reading Isaiah (61:1-2), wouldn't that have caused an outrage among the "superstitious" Jews, wouldn't they have attacked him immediately? Instead, we read that they listened attentively to the reading (4:20), and even initially received his added words positively (4:22).
Indeed, Jesus "did not teach like the scribes", but not merely because he was against the traditions that contradicted the law. Unlike the scribes who referred to the Scripture and to each other, Jesus stated things "as one who had authority", as one who could refer to himself (see at the end of the Sermon on the Mount, Mt 7:29). What does this have to do with the use of the Name in the synagogue scene?
The "Lord's Prayer" is a prayer addressed to our Father. If Jesus really wanted to encourage the use of the Name with the Lord's Prayer, why should we call God Father, why doesn't the prayer start like this: "Our Lord...", or like this: "Our Jehovah"?
How could a prayer addressed to God encourage us, people, to consider God's name holy? The word "hallow" is not in the optative but in the imperative mood, and it does not ask something from man, but from God. Translated literally: "let your name be hallowed", i.e., by God, i.e., God should make it holy among people, so that finally his royal rule may come, and his will may be done on earth as it is done in heaven (Mt 6:9-10).
If the use of God's name is really so important, then why do Jehovah's Witnesses address God with a theological hybrid word alien to Hebrew, why not according to the most probable pronunciation (e.g. Yahweh)?
Some fragments from early times of the 3rd-century BC Greek translation of the Old Testament (Septuagint, LXX) that have survived contain the four Hebrew letters within the Greek text.
However, this does not mean that they later left it out because of "superstition", as the substitution of JHVH with Kyrios in later editions was not a translation of JHVH, but of Adonai, thus drawing attention to the correct reading (the kere).
This was obviously not needed for the Jews, but for the pagans who were already reading the LXX.
But the pagans would not have been able to do anything with the four Hebrew letters within the Greek text anyway, they would have misunderstood it, so Kyrios was needed from the outset.
In the era of the emperors, who deified themselves and also had themselves called kyrios, it was a testimony on the part of the Jews that their God was "the Lord" (ho kyrios), and not the emperor.
Jehovah's Witnesses' own Bible translation, the New World Translation, has a very debatable feature: it uses the name Jehovah in the New Testament as well, which they call the Christian Greek Scriptures. Witnesses have a hard time defending this stance, because:
- There is not a single New Testament manuscript left to us that contains the name Jehovah.
- The organization's Wescott-Hort text also does not use the name Jehovah.
- No contemporary work mentions that the name was in the New Testament.
- Even in the works of Christian writers, there is no trace of this.
The topic of the divine name has already produced several studies from the critics. The foundations of the argument are not solid. The Society's argument (as a recent study pointed out) is based on some assumptions. We would like to highlight a few of these.
One assumption is that the Septuagint (LXX) translation quoted by Christians used the divine name. There is insufficient evidence for this. The appendix contains 12 fragments, but these prove: there were LXX versions that included the divine name. However, many other LXX fragments do not use it. When the New Testament writers quote the LXX, they used several versions, not just one. But the JHVH name is indeed in the original Scriptures, so this assumption can be overlooked.
The main question is whether Jesus' disciples used the Name? Not a single Christian writer, not a single early Christian group's surviving writings contain the Name. Why?
The apostles indeed quoted the Old Testament either from the Hebrew text (from memory, or possibly from scrolls in their possession), or according to the first-century, commonly used editions of the Greek LXX.
There is not a single fragment of the Greek New Testament that contains even a single Hebrew letter or the Greek transcription of YHWH.
There is no historical record that such a New Testament text ever existed, or that anyone ever saw anything like it.
Is there any factual basis for the Watchtower's claim that the New Testament authors also inserted the Hebrew JHVH into the Greek text?
If not, why does it present as a fact something for which there is no evidence, and which contradicts the well-known facts?
According to the appendix, some have falsified the New Testament writings. However, this is just a theory, as the Society acknowledges (although a theory cannot be treated as a historical fact...). George Howard invented this theory, but he himself did not dare to declare it as a fact. Why not? Because there is no evidence for it. A step as significant as the editing of the Gospels would have required a joint resolution, a joint conspiracy. There would have been traces of this, the Jewish religious leaders would have attacked immediately. But nothing like this happened.
There is not a single written record within Christianity that the church called upon the copyists or translators of the Scriptures to erase JHVH. Such a decision would have required at least a universal council resolution, would have provoked significant internal resistance, and could not have been carried out secretly.
There is not a single written record outside Christianity either, that would verify or at least indicate something like this, although this could have been a strong argument for the Jews in religious debates.
The Watchtower's claim of Bible forgery is thus only an assumption without proof, i.e., a hypothesis. Nevertheless, they accuse the Christianity of the 2nd and 3rd centuries of capital crime, i.e., Bible forgery, because due to their alleged crime, anyone could have believed until the 20th century, based purely on the Bible, that JHVH was among us in Jesus. It fundamentally questions whether God's revelation was successful and whether His Word has been preserved; this contradicts Jesus, who said that his words will remain forever (see Mt 24:35). They also accuse the writers of 20th century Christian Bible translations, hymn books or creeds of hatred against the Name of God, because they mostly omit the name "Jehovah" that still appears in old translations, and replace it with "Lord".
None of the surviving Greek New Testament copies contain Hebrew letters, and there is no historical trace of the Name being "erased." The Society, therefore, presents unproven assumptions as facts (slander). The name Jehovah appears 237 times in the "Christian Greek Scriptures," of which 82 are quotes from the Old Testament that contain YHWH, but the other 155 cases were chosen completely arbitrarily. If we start from the existing copies and the facts: the New Testament calls the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit both Lord and God.
Isn't it theological bias to present something as a fact for which there is no evidence? Isn't the Watchtower afraid that its claim contradicts even the words of Jesus? Does the Watchtower rightly accuse Christian churches, who do not object to the Name, as they regularly use the "Yahweh" accepted by the Jews, and even the form Jehovah in specialist literature, sermons, some Bible translations and hymn books, and who, not out of resentment against God and his name, but primarily to distance themselves from the teachings of the Watchtower and its separate Bible, were forced to avoid the variant name "Jehovah"?
The written revelation has been preserved by God's providence; through the many hundreds of preserved copies, thousands of fragments, references, and ancient translations, the sacred text could be completely reconstructed except for a few disputed details. The internationally accepted Hebrew and Greek texts: Biblia Hebraica, Novum Testamentum Graece (Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft, Stuttgart), The Greek New Testament (United Bible Societies, New York).
The New Testament writers (except for Luke), who were native Aramaic speakers, did not use the Hebrew letter YHWH, nor did they try to reproduce its Greek phonetics. In quotes from the Old Testament, they always translated YHWH as "the Lord" (kyrios). They referred to Jesus with the same word: "the Lord" (kyrios), and even to the Holy Spirit (e.g. 2Cor 3:17). In the New Testament there is no rule or indication that the kyrios would have a different meaning specifically for YHWH, and another one specifically for Jesus.
Based on the above facts, we only have three possibilities by the method of exclusion:
- if the authors of the New Testament had not paid attention to the fact that the reader could confuse YHWH with Jesus, they would have written with a degree of irresponsibility that would fundamentally question the inspiration and sanctity of their writings;
- if the aim of the authors of the New Testament had been deliberate deception, then we could forget the whole issue
- if the authors of the New Testament wrote consciously and carefully, and had no intention of deceiving others, then based on the facts, it is logical to conclude that they also professed the deity of Jesus.
The WTS presents its own assumption as fact. No one can know what or all that was used in the 1st century. As for Jesus, he knew Hebrew and likely read from the Hebrew scrolls in the synagogues of Palestine, not from the LXX.
According to linguistic research, the Apostles mostly quoted from the Hebrew originals of the Hebrew Scriptures, rarely from the LXX's Old Greek versions, and probably often quoted from memory. The appendix of The Greek New Testament (United Bible Sociates, New York, 4th edition, 1993) lists all Old Testament quotations and allusions, separately marking those taken from the Septuagint with LXX. As I counted, only 62 out of 309 quotes come from the LXX, and only 41 out of about 1200 references. The ratio of quotes and references taken from the Hebrew text and its Greek translation (LXX) is fifteen to one!
Undoubtedly, some copies of the LXX that contained the Name survived even after the 1st century. The WTS itself mentions the 2nd-century (converted to Judaism) Aquila LXX edition, and the 4-5th-century publication by Jerome (Hieronymus), who still saw such copies. However, it is a question why there is not a single fragment or at least a reference to the Tetragrammaton being included in the Christian Greek Scriptures, contrary to the LXX. Why is there no historical data about anyone ever seeing such a thing?
If Jesus had pronounced the Name (the third word of Isaiah 61:1) in the synagogue, the Jews would have immediately reproached him, who, according to the WTS, never uttered the Name out of "superstitious" fear. Instead, they listened to him and only became upset when Jesus claimed that the text he read was being fulfilled right there, in him.
Jesus taught differently from the scribes, not because he freely pronounced the name, but because he taught with authority [exousia] during the Sermon on the Mount. While the rabbis could only refer to the Scripture or to some other famous rabbis, Jesus taught with his own authority: "You have heard that it was said… But I say to you…" (cf. Jn 6:45). Such a sermon ended with Mt 7:28-29.
Jesus' disciples knew God's YHWH name: they knew how to write and pronounce it, as the people could hear it year by year from the mouth of the high priest who presented the sacrifices. Jesus did not make his disciples acquainted with God's name in the sense that he had to betray a sequence of sounds, and there is no biblical data that he would have encouraged them to use the name freely. To "make someone known by name" means to introduce someone personally or to present someone's personality. Thus, Jesus introduced God's essence, personality to his people who had distanced themselves from God (cf. Jn 1:18).
Few Jehovah's Witnesses can look up the Greek base text used, although the Society published it in 1985. Even it does not contain the divine name!!! The Watchtower Society refers to so-called 'J sources'. The problem is that the 'J sources' are all late (1385–1979) translations, not copies made from the Greek text.
The evidence that the organization has brought up over the years in favor of this characteristic of the translation has all been refuted. The July 15, 2001 issue of The Watchtower came up with a new "proof" that quickly turns out to be, to put it mildly, misleading.
The article starting on page 29 deals with Origen. On page 31, there is a picture showing a part of Origen's work Hexapla, with the Greek transcription of YHWH circled. The explanatory text next to the picture says:
"Origen's work titled Hexapla proves that the name of God was used in the Christian Greek Scriptures."
The article no longer makes this claim, only that the Hexapla contains the name of God and this is the proof that the Christians used the name Jehovah.
A research-minded Witness might be satisfied with this and be reassured that something still confirms the Governing Body's position. Is this really the case?
The magazine itself provides the answer on page 30, where it honestly acknowledges what the Hexapla is. It writes, "The Hexapla is a large fifty-volume edition of the Hebrew Scriptures." So, it is an OLD TESTAMENT! Nobody disputes that the name Jehovah has a place in the Old Testament. But the fact that the Old Testament and its translations use the name Jehovah does not prove that it was also in the New Testament. Therefore, the caption on page 31 is highly misleading and does not reflect reality.
The J-sources
What are these so-called J-sources? Several in-house Witnesses asked us. This was partly our fault because we used a designation that the Witnesses do not know. Therefore, we owe an explanation. To prepare a translation, texts are needed on which we base the translation into a given language. These are the sources we use. There are several thousand manuscripts available for the New Testament. These texts had to be distinguished from each other. Therefore, each of these usable source materials received an individual code with a combination of a letter and a number. The earliest material in time, for example, is P52, made in AD 125. Each papyrus manuscript received a P sign. The book mentions the New Testaments translated into Hebrew. The Watchtower Society (but not others!) refers to these with a J letter.
What's wrong with these J-marked sources? The P-marked sources were created between AD 100 and 300 (these are copies of copies made from the original writings and their copies, etc.). The Hebrew alef-marked Codex Sinaiticus is also from the 4th century AD. The A-marked Codex Alexandrinus is from the 5th century AD, etc. What are the J sources? New Testament translated into Hebrew. So these are not copies, but translations, which is a significant difference. Translations are generally less accurate (more distorted) than copies. It is generally not professional to justify a translation process with another translation when talking about deviation from the copies! It's like justifying my wrong action with someone else's wrong action.
Another big mistake is that the copies marked with P, Hebrew alef, A, B, C, and D are fairly early. The time gap between them and the original Writings is between 25 and a few hundred years. The reader may smile at a few hundred years. But do they know how many years are between the translations marked with the letter J and the original Writings? The Society lists 27 such translations. The earliest translation is from 1385 (distance 1287 years), the latest is from 1981 (distance 1883 years); so a few hundred years really is a trifle compared to this.
But why is this important? Because the J sources are the most fundamental from the point of view of the NWT. Only these use the divine name. Not a single copy, only these translations! We think it is understandable how significant this is. The New World Translation reference version lists these translations in detail.
At first glance, it may not be striking, but the age of the so-called "J" sources is of great significance. According to the information found in KIT and NWT,
- the earliest "J" labeled Hebrew translation, "J2" (containing the Gospel of Matthew in Hebrew), dates from 1385 AD, thus from the 14th century, the Middle Ages;
- the most frequently quoted Hebrew translation, "J7" (the entire New Testament in Hebrew), is from 1599 AD, on the threshold of the new era;
- the most recent is the 1979 "J22" (also a complete translation).
In contrast, it is a well-known fact that the earliest Greek manuscripts in our possession, which contain the words "kyrios" and "theos", were copied only about 30 years after John wrote the Book of Revelation. The earliest Hebrew translation brought up to substantiate the use of "Jehovah" in the New Testament was thus created at least 1300 years later than the Greek copies! In rendering the text, the Society attributes greater authority to 14th-century and later Hebrew translations than to 2nd-5th century Greek copies. On what basis?The Watchtower Society essentially argues in favor of the NWT by saying that the Tetragrammaton appears in such Hebrew translations that were made from the well-known Greek text which does not even contain the Tetragrammaton! After this, several questions arise:
- The Society does not consider the existing Greek text (Westcott-Hort, 1881), which it also uses, to be intact because, according to its theory, Christians of the 2nd-3rd centuries erased the divine name from it. So, did Jesus and the apostles not tell the truth? (Matthew 24:35, 1 Peter 1:25)
- In the text's translation, the Society attributes greater authority to Hebrew translations from the 14th century and even later than to the Greek copies from the 2nd-5th centuries. On what basis?
- The word "kyrios" ("Lord") appears 714 times in the Greek text; the NWT replaces this 224 times with "Jehovah". The question is, why did it do this in exactly these 224 cases and why not in the other 490 cases?
- The word "theos" ("God") appears 1318 times in the Greek text; the NWT replaces this 13 times with "Jehovah". The question is, why did it do this in exactly these 13 cases and why not in the other 1305 cases?
- Although 82 out of the 237 cases involve quotes from Hebrew texts that contained the Tetragrammaton, what justifies the other 155 cases? What does not justify the rest? Do you think the "J" sources can substantiate the replacement of the words "Lord" and "God" with "Jehovah"?
The Society treats Professor Howard's theory similarly to its own as a fact ("historical fact"), or presents it misleadingly as a statement ("used the tetragrammaton"). Howard's theory remained what it was in professional circles: a hypothesis, an unproven assumption. Regarding the Talmudic passage, Howard also only hypothesized, and did not claim that these were Jewish-Christian texts.
This theory of Howard's also remained what it was: a hypothesis. Moreover, Howard at least inaccurately provided the title of the Talmud quotation: "Talmud Shabbat 13,5" simply does not exist. According to Ezra Bick, an Israeli Talmud scholar, the most probable place for the text is Shabbat 116a. The Society claims that the word here "minim" (heretics) refers to Christians, but in reality, we can guess among three possibilities. The "minim" or heretics refers to Jews (according to Bick's opinion), or to Christians (according to the Society), or to Judaizing Christians, who were also considered heretics by the early Christian church (e.g., the Ebionites).