Sure it is. That is what the verse says. Jeremiah was applying God’s word in Leviticus and the irony of the curse for breaking the covenant.
The point is that the phrase "to fulfill the word of the Lord by the mouth of Jeremiah" in 2 Chronicles can't be applied to the language that wasn't in Jerimiah. Ezra was bringing together something from Leviticus, but that doesn't change the content of Jerimiah.
The land was paying off its sabbaths all the days it was desolate, until the seventy years (of servitude of the nation's to Babylon) was over (completed/fulfilled). This is in no way requires an equivalence of desolation to 70 years.