He started to translate the Vulgate after the Council of Constantinople, when Arianism wasn't an issue at all for him.
There you go again. đ How do you know what went on inside Jeromeâs head? Whereâs your evidence? By the way, Iâm not saying that Jerome definitely removed âcreatedâ from Prov. 8.22 for theological reasons, even though the source you cited said it was motivated by Arianism, and even though Jerome complained the world âgroaned in astonishment to find itself Arianâ in 360 CE. I donât know on what basis you claim Arianism wasnât an issue for Jerome other than your say so.
You say qana shouldnât be translated âcreatedâ, yet experts in Hebrew do translate it as âcreatedâ, including Jewish scholars such as Robert Alter. How are we supposed to judge the situation? Hebrew scholars are wrong and aqwsed12345 is right? On what basis? Experts donât always get it right, of course, but youâve given no good reason for thinking they arenât right about qana meaning âcreatedâ in Prov 8.22. I described Robert Alterâs translation as âhighly regardedâ because it is. Read some of the reviews online. John Barton, a scholar at Oxford University, described Robert Alterâs translation of the Hebrew Bible as perhaps the best translation ever made into English. Alterâs view does carry some weight.
Some dispute whether the OT of the Peshitta was translated directly from Hebrew and a majority favour direct translation. I checked Emanuel Tovâs Textual Criticism of the Hebrew Bible (2011) and he says the Peshitta was translated from Hebrew. Earnest mentioned Targums supporting the reading âcreatedâ. I didnât know about that but theyâll be making their commentary from the Hebrew. But weâre really getting into the long grass here. The support in favour of âcreatedâ in Prov 8.22 is substantial.
Incidentally I donât think there is any Harvard publication that says Jesus did not exist.
On the view of Jesus in the Gospel of John I find the comments of Adela Yarbro Collins interesting (yes brace yourself Iâm going to quote those blasted âexpertsâ again) from King and Messiah as Son of God: Divine, Human, and Angelic Messianic Figures in Biblical and Related Literature (2008):
the third clause of John 1:1 May be translated either âthe word was Godâ or âthe word was a god.â Justin Martyr apparently understood the passage the latter way. ⌠It is not precisely clear what Casey means by [describing Jesus as] âa fully divine beingâ here. If he means something like the second person of the trinity, it is doubtful that John 1 supports such a view. 175, 176
Wisdom was portrayed as Godâs first creature in Prov 8:22-23 and Sir 24:9. 178
The identification [of Jesus with âthe wordâ in Johnâs prologue] implies that Jesus is pre-existent and divine in the sense of being an emanation of God or being âa godâ. 181
The term âson of Godâ, however, is elaborated so that Jesus is portrayed as a pre-existent, heavenly messiah. He is son of God in a unique way as âthe only-begotten god.â 186
In the Gospel he [Jesus] is either an emanation of God or Godâs first creature, namely, the only begotten god. In Revelation, the evidence suggests that he is Godâs first creature, namely the principal angel. 203