How many terms does the bible bother to explain

by Blotty 8 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Blotty
    Blotty

    The Bible is well known for its ellipsis* and its lack of explanatory statements of a term used. There are exceptions in grammatical patterns, such as John exclusively using Archon for ruler in his writings - which make the term self evident.
    Sin - is defined
    "One" (unity) - is somewhat defined and also self evident from the context (no exceptions, every person part of that unity is listed in the context)

    An interesting thing to see would be how many terms are actually used and explained

    *the omission from speech or writing of a word or words that are superfluous or able to be understood from contextual clues.

  • TD
    TD

    Ellipses (Like 1 Peter 3:3 for example) are sometimes used to indicate incomplete grammar.

    The presumption that the reader understands terms is a good argument (One of many) that the bible was written to, for and by people who knew the "backstory" and not us today.

  • blondie
    blondie

    How many jws or ex-jws think that the phrase "governing body" is said in Acts 15:2? Check again. The WTS will cite (not quote) a scripture in Acts 15:2 and say governing body in the paragraph but not put quote marks around it to indicate it is not a quote from the scripture. How many people realize that?

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    Blotty... Sectarian usage of terminology forms part of the group identity. WT lingo has special sectarian nuances beyond the simple definition from a dictionary for example. Christianity as whole and divisions within had lingo that carried esoteric meaning unknown to a general audience. The Qumran sect, the Gnostics, the Cerinthians, the Paulinists, the Jamesians, each had colored usage. When the selection of writings, preserved to serve as a Cannon, was assimilated some of the language of the Paulinists for example became neutered and domesticated, stripped of sectarian meaning and catholicized.

  • Anony Mous
    Anony Mous

    You also have to understand both the translational issues as already pointed out, the other problem is that most of the original texts were written in subversion of existing governments and thus not just written within context, but also using code that were designed to not be understandable even by contemporary readers.

    Most of the apocrypha, the books of John of Patmos, Paul and even older books and writers like Jeremiah, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Daniel etc were all likely writing critical pieces chronicling the actions of their contemporary kings, leaders and governments, nowadays interpreted (falsely) as prophecy.

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    I have to apologize, whenever I post I sound like I'm doing a thesis. I hate typing so much, I rewrite a sentence multiple times and often the end product sound robotic or dogmatic. Not my intention.

  • Blotty
    Blotty

    Note: I'm strictly talking bible terms and its uses here not WTS or any other religion or organisation.

  • Phizzy
    Phizzy

    "The Qumran sect, the Gnostics, the Cerinthians, the Paulinists, the Jamesians, each had colored usage." That is why we have to be so aware when trying to understand what their meaning was, of course, their intended readership understood, or the Writer assumed they did ! hence they never felt the need to explain !

    Also many words in the N.T take on a unique nuance of meaning, different to both Classical and Koine Greek.

    "...became neutered and domesticated, stripped of sectarian meaning and catholicized." I presume you mean, PP, that the pseudepigraphical Epistles were written this way ? or are you pointing to a later Editing ?

  • Blotty
    Blotty

    sorry phizzy, Im not quite following what you mean.. (may just be me being stupid)
    I'm pointing to terms like what was put in my original post..

    There are any words/ terms online where people argue about the meaning. The simple reason is the writer saw no need to define the meaning as it was self evident

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