John 1:1 - Koine & Modern Greek Comparison

by Wonderment 2 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Wonderment
    Wonderment

    Have you ever wondered why John 1.1 reads somewhat differently in Koine and Modern Greek?

    I will briefly address this question for the curious ones. Below you will find three Greek readings, one from the NT Greek Text, followed by two Modern Greek versions: the NWT-2017 edition, and the other by Spyros Filos (Wikipedia: A revision of the Vamvas translation of the Bible into the modern vernacular (Demotic Greek) by Spyros (Spiros) Filos (Σπύρος Φίλος) was first published in 1994. This translation is used in the Greek Evangelical Church and is also recognized by the Orthodox Church. - Copyright © The Holy Bible, Spyros Filos Translation, copyright 1994, latest edition 2013, by Pergamos Publications):

    1. Koine Greek (SBL GNT Greek Text):
    Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
    In beginning was the Logos, and the Logos was toward the God, and god was the Logos.

    2. Modern Greek:
    Στην αρχή ήταν ο Λόγος, και ο Λόγος ήταν μαζί με τον Θεό,
    In beginning was the Logos, and the Logos was together with the God,

    and the Logos was god.
    και ο Λόγος ήταν θεός. (NWT-Modern Greek)

    3. H Αγία Γραφή στη Δημοτική (The Holy Bible in Demotic [Popular Idiom] - by Spiros Filos):
    ΣTHN αρχή ήταν ο Λόγος, και ο Λόγος ήταν προς τον Θεό,
    In beginning was the Logos, and the Logos was towards the God,

    και Θεός ήταν ο Λόγος.
    and god was the Logos.

    In comparing the three versions of the verse above, we are able to see some differences. First, notice that the two modern versions drop the original diacritical marks. Glossing the first clause of the verse we have, “in beginning (Ἐν ἀρχῇ)” in Koine changing to “Στην αρχή” in Modern Greek - with same meaning. “Στην” is a contraction of the modern Greek preposition "σε + την" (in the).

    The verb “ἦν” from the NT (third person singular) shows up as "ήταν" in the modern texts. The change from "ην" (ēn) in Koine Greek to "ήταν" (ítan) in Modern Greek reflects an evolution in the Greek language over the centuries. Both "ην" and "ήταν" are forms of the Greek verb "[eimí, NT] είμαι" (eimai), which means "to be" or "to exist."

    In the second clause, the Greek NWT has “μαζί με τον Θεό.” “Mαζί με” is a common Greek phrase meaning “together with,” or “along with.” It is used to indicate the presence or association of someone or something with another person or object. Thus, it can be translated simply by “with.”

    Next, we notice that the original “θεόν” in “τὸν θεόν” (NT) now appears as "τον Θεό" in the modern Bibles. This is another of the subtle changes occurring in the Greek language through its evolution. In Biblical Greek, the accusative case of the word "Θεός" (Theós) was "Θεόν" (Theón) when it functioned as the direct object of a sentence. However, as the language evolved, many consonants at the end of words were weakened or dropped in the spoken language, leading to the loss of the final "n" in some instances. This process, known as synizesis and apocope, contributed to the simplification of certain word forms and eventually resulted in the modern accusative form "Θεό" (Theó) for "Θεός" (Theós).

    Any discernible difference in the third clause can be explained by the above, with the exception that the Greek NWT has “theós” after the verb “was,” unlike the other two readings which have “theós” preceding the verb. The Greek NWT rendering is obviously following the structure of the English translation, per se, which is both acceptable and contemporary in Modern Greek.

    Any comments?

  • Blotty
    Blotty

    illustrates a point I made in a paper I wrote about languages evolving

    In modern Greek (I'm better in koine) is there any difference in placing Theos before or after the verb? since modern has a form of an indefinite article.

  • Wonderment
    Wonderment

    Blooty: In modern Greek ... is there any difference in placing Theos [without the article] before or after the verb? since modern has a form of an indefinite article.

    The differences in meaning are relatively subtle and context-driven. In this case, the essential meaning of the sentence remains the same.

    Although Modern Greek has an indefinite article within its grammatical toolbox, its main usage is to indicate numerical sense, not to indicate nonspecificity. Ex., "Θέλω ένα καφέ." (Thélo éna kafé.) - "I want one coffee." In Modern Greek, the use of the indefinite article with a numerical sense is more prominent and distinct. In turn, the English indefinite article main function is to indicate nonspecificity., but it can be used numerically to specify "one."

    When Greeks want to signal nonspecificity, they usually drop the article (the equivalent of "the") as is done with "theos" in the last part of this verse. Hence, Modern Greek versions do NOT add the article "the" before "theos" in John 1.1c in order to make it definite.

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