I wanted to post this as an alternative explanation for the Nazareth/Nazarene description of the Christian Savior. Here before I posted another possible explanation for the word that involved Galilean dialect and possible confusion between the words Nazarite and Nazareth by the authors of Matthew and Luke. The following possible explanation seems to have merit and is held by many scholars as the most probable reason the for the Gospel reference to Nazareth/Nazarene when (to all available evidence) the city did not exist in the first century. ...............
The Hebrew name for Christians has always been notzrim, and although modern Christians claim that Christianity only started in the 1st century CE, the 1st-century Christians in Israel considered themselves to be a continuation of the notzri movement, which had been in existence for about 150 years [1]. In the rabbinical tradition, Jeshu ben Pandera is also called Jeshu ha-Notzri (Jesus the Nazar). The Greek equivalent of notzri is nazoraios (or nazaraios/naziraios). The stem of this word means 'to keep oneself separate' -- an indication of the ascetic nature of this sect. The early Christians conjectured that nazoraios (variously rendered Nazar/Nazarite, Nazorean or Nazarene) meant a person from Nazareth and so it was assumed that Jesus lived in Nazareth. However, the original Hebrew for Nazareth is Natzrat and a person from Nazareth is a Natzrati. The expression 'Jesus of Nazareth' is therefore a mistranslation of 'Jeshu ha-Notzri'