Luke 21:24 reads, in the American Standard Version: "and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled". The NWT refers to this period, as we all know, as the "appointed times of the nations".
I've always wondered about the application of this verse, even when I was a jw elder. The Society applies the beginning these "times" to the destruction of Jerusalem by the Babylonians in 607 BCE (according to jw understanding, of course). They start the count of 2,520 years at that point and arrive at 1914 CE for the end of these "appointed times". I know I'm not telling anyone anything new here, but anyway:
In Luke 21:24, it seems that Jesus is talking in future tense through the whole verse. He is referring to the coming destruction of Jerusalem (which of course was in 70 CE). It was always hard for me to understand why Jesus would suddenly seem to shift the prophecy to a past event, the destruction by Babylon in 607 BCE, when the jws say that the last king sitting on the throne in Jerusalem was removed. The Society believes Jesus was referring to a time period already in progress, but it's been hard for me to phathom that by reading this verse.
It would seem simpler if the "times of the Gentiles" began in 70 CE. I realize that a king had not been sitting in Jerusalem since the destruction by the Babylonians, but, on the other hand, Jerusalem did come to have a rebuilt temple and a functioning priesthood, both of which were permanently removed in 70 CE. So perhaps the 'trampling' or being "trodden down" could instead be applied as beginning in 70 CE.
Of course, such an interpretation would shoot the Society's whole 1914 premise down fast.
Any comments on this verse? I'm wondering if anyone has ever had a chance to do additional research on it. Thanks!