The 'scapegoat' arrangement.....

by kes152 2 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • kes152

    The scapegoat is in the same position for modern-day Israel as Jesus was for 1st century Israel. Jesus was the mediator for Israel of his day. The scapegoat is the mediator for modern-day Israel.

    However, my Lord says:

    "For there is one God, the Father, and ONE mediator between God and men, Christ Jesus, who gave himself a ransom for ALL." (1 Tim. 2:5)

    "All those who have come IN PLACE OF ME are thieves and plunderers."

    A "mediator" is one who is a "go between." Our Lord is the only one who has been "authorized" to enter the Most Holy in heaven and to "intercede" and "speak" for ALL of Israel. The Father listens to NO ONE but the Son. When the Father speaks, Jesus takes what the Father said, leaves the Most Holy and speaks to us the words God has said. If we want to ask or say something, we tell Jesus and Jesus presents himself before the Father and tells him. Then Jesus "brings back word" from the Father to us. Hence, Jesus is our "mediator" or our "go between."

    They are under a curse because they have not kept the laws of the New Covenant. (Daniel 11:30, 32)

    Upon reading that scripture, it only says ones have acted "wickedly against the [new] covenant." The DIFFERENCE between the new covenant, and the Law covenant through Moses is: if you break one law under the Law covenant, you are automatically under a curse (Gal. 3:10, Deut. 27:26). The new covenant REMOVED us from the curse and bought to UNdeserved kindness and forgiveness. If we sin (disobey) while under the new covenant, we have a RANSOM to 'cover' us so that there are no 'curses' in the new covenant. Someone who acts wickedly against the new covenant, is simply an enemy or "of the world." (the 'world HATES you) There is NO scripture anywhere that says if you don't keep the laws of the new covenant you are under a 'curse.' But if you are under the old covenant, and you don't keep every law, you are INDEED under a curse.

    So, just as 1st century Israel needed a new covenant, so does modern-day Israel. Jesus is spoken of at 1 John 2:1,2 as the 'helper with the Father' in behalf of Israel, so also is the scapegoat in our day.

    Again, John 10:8. Jesus is for "ALL of Israel." both 1st. century, pre-1st. century and "modern-day." "Israel" is Israel as far as Jah is concerned. Jah looks at the heart, and if the man inside is Israel, Jah sees him as Israel. (1 Sam. 16:7)

    In order for modern-day Israel to be free of their sins, they must accept the scapegoat arrangement. They show this by praying to Jehovah on the basis of this arrangement. When they do this, they show that they recognize that they have lost the privilege of having Jesus as their mediator because of their idolatry and that they are in need of a new mediator and covenant.

    Moses said there was going to be a mediator to replace him (not because of Israel's disobedience) in Acts 3:22, 23. When Jesus arrived, he showed he was the one whom all the prophets spoke of. Jesusdid not say there is one that will replace him, but he said:

    "Many will come on the basis of my name saying 'I am the Christ,' and will mislead many."

    "Many will come on the basis of my name saying 'I am he (one who can atone for their sins)' but do not go after them, for false Christs ......"

    Jesus left NO ROOM for any other 'arrangement' to replace what he is for ALL of Israel, and his precious blood that cleanses ALL sin.

    When the second goat was brought before the dead goat, the first goat, this scapegoat (second goat) was cleansed of its sins and so it could then be used in a sin-atoning way. It now has become 'guiltless.'

    Well... upon READING the account, the second goat was NOT brought before the first goat. It was only brought before Jah (Lev. 16:7, 10). The first goat was killed to atone for Israel's sins against the holy place, and the second goat carried all the other rebellions of Israel into the wilderness. Also, this goat was a young goat. This is VERY important. Why? Because young goats are viewed as "unblemished." (Lev. 22:19, 20) Do note, that when presenting an 'offering' it HAD to be young, and without defect, thus 'guiltless.' Otherwise, the animal could not be acceptable as an offering to Jah. Anything that was offered to Jah HAD to be without blemish, guiltless.

    In this manner, the scapegoat is able to fulfill the New Covenant and institute a third covenant which all who are Israel will need to abide by. And since you have become an Israelite, you will also have to agree to live by its terms. The New Covenant has now become obsolete.

    Did we all forget that "the God of peace, who brought up from the dead the great shepherd of the sheep with the blood of an EVERLASTING covenant, our Lord Jesus." (Heb. 13:20) The new covenant is an EVERLASTING covenant, and thus "remains FOR EVER." It CANNOT 'waste away' and become obsolete. It is eternal. The old covenant was not an everlasting covenant, and thus it "wasted away" and became obsolete. To say such occurred with the new covenant would be "De-valuing" both the mediator of the new covenant and the actual covenant. Hence a blasphemy.

    "Every sort of blasphemy against the Son will be forgiven you." Please take care, for you are treading on 'dangerous ground.' But you will indeed be forgiven it.

  • Carmel


    not all "goats" are viewed as "unblemished"! Check out the Beastiality Thread on Support4xjws!



  • kes152

    You are correct....

    "not all "goats" are viewed as "unblemished"!

    The account doesn't say "goats" it says "kids" or "young goats." Such ones had to be the 'choiciest' of the ones born in order to be used. No physical defect or infimities could be present. Thus, it could be viewed as 'unblemished' and acceptable to be used to 'atone' for sin.

    The kids' spirits were willing to "give their life" in behalf of their 'brothers' Israel. Goats that have grown, however, are very stubborn and "want to do their own thing," thus having a 'defect' within them.

    Peace to you,

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