Question about John

by eyes_opened 3 Replies latest watchtower bible

• 

  eyes_opened

  I know I'm probably being dense here, but I was wondering why in the book of John, at 5:22 Jesus says "Moreover the father judges no one, but has entrusted all judgement to the son" but then in 12:47, 48 he says "As for the person who hears my words but does not keep them, I do not judge him. For I did not come to judge the world but to save it. 48 "There is a judge for the one who rejects me and does not accept my word." So in one he says he has been entrusted to judge then in the other he says he did not come to judge. Help?

  Thanks

  Eyes
• 

  perfectpie

  Great question. Maybe I can help. You be the "judge"
  I think the context is the clue. In the one scripture he was indeed identifying himself as the Judge. He also does in Matthew 25 when he speaks of seperating the Sheeps and Goats. But in the other scripture you mentioned he was making clear that really it's our actions and our will that decides our outcome. So, in that sense he dosn't judge us. He was trying to show his goodwill in this scripture, in the first one he was showing the responsibility given him. Hope this makes sense. chow
• 

  eyes_opened

  Thanks perfect. Appreciate the help

  Eyes
• 

  Pathofthorns

  I understand it to mean that when Christ came, he came not to judge but came to die for mankind. The judging that is committed to him is at a future date after he returned to heaven. The scriptures you refer to are simply discussing Christ's role in different time periods.

  Path