by goingthruthemotions 9 Replies latest watchtower beliefs
it just kills me when i look at the scriptures in the NWT and alot of times when it refers to jesus christ it says the christ. to me this is taking away his
Sovereignty. Maybe i am looking to much into this but, this is just another way of mind control.
GTTM
The NWT picks and chooses when it will say Messiah, or Anointed or Christ because it has to massage its own doctrine carefully.
The JW's have "secret doctrine" whereby the remnant are actually CHRIST along with JESUS as mediator. This enables them to
elevate the GB into a Pope.
When JW's say somebody is of the "heavenly calling" they are saying--according to the doctrines of JW-dom--these are CHRIST.
By avoiding making Jesus the numinous equivalent of JEHOVAH, they avoid the danger of idolatry for themselves.
I guess I don't see it.
the Christ ... the Messiah ... the anointed One ... why would this term be degrading?
Thank you so much...so it's just another way for the dubs to manipulate scripture to there teachings. also i love what you wrote about cults. I wish my wife would open her eyes. i was at the meeting last night and just taken back by the people there who swallow the BS hook line and sinker. always shaking there head in agreement. like bobble heads.
GTTM
hi wannabefree: to me it's a play on words. allowing jesus not to elevated. I have looked at many other bibles and have never seen this play on words.
GTTM
The NWT uses the phrase "the christ" because that's what the Greek text says: ὁ χριστός. ho christos. The christ. The NWT is a semi-literal translation. It pays particular attention to definite articles. F. W. Franz usually translated anarthrous words with an indefinite article (a, an). In Koine Greek (Biblical Greek), a substantive without an article takes an indefinite article in English. Greek does not have indefinite articles. For clarity (and so you don't have to run to a dictionary) a substantive is a word that acts as a noun.
ὁ χριστός (the christ) suggests that he was anointed in a particular sense, that he was the christ par excellence.
However, this distinction is lost in translation in many languages as it is impossible gramatically to do so.
From what I have seen, Franz didn't translate anything. Although, I am no expert and will have to look more into the matter.
Thanks for the clarification everyone.
GTTM
The words ‘the Christ’ appears 143x in the NWT. Like Old Goat said: "The NWT uses the phrase "the christ" because that's what the Greek text says: ὁ χριστός. ho christos. The christ."
Here's one instance (1 Cor. 6:15) where "Christ" appears in Greek with the article "the" and without. The NWT shows that. So does Byington's translation. The ASV and the KJV don't.
What is wrong with that? Two bible versions follow the Greek, and two don't. Of course, there are other Bibles available to support both renderings. Which one do you prefer? Why criticize the one that sticks to the Greek?
