1 Peter 1:11 - Christ's Spirit or Jehovah's Spirit

by Westenddave 5 Replies latest watchtower bible

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  Westenddave

  Best regards to all

  My question is about 1 Peter 1:11. The 1984 NWT omits the word "Christ", beside spirit, although it occurs in the earliest manuscripts:

  11 They kept on investigating what particular season or what sort of [season] the spirit (the reference says: 2 Sam 23:2 ) in them was indicating concerning Christ (footnote says the spirit of Christ which was in them indicated)...

  Beside the word spirit, the reference quotes 2 Sam 23:2, which says "The spirit of Jehovah". Therefore the reader will conclude its JH spirit. However, after the word Christ, there is a footnote, which says "the spirit of Christ". So at the very least, they do indicate the correct translation. However, fast forward to the new 2013 NWT and they have dropped the footnote. NO MORE FOOTNOTE.

  I further checked several Greek Translations & in every instance it says "Christ Spirit". There is very little to be argued here, since it involves two words side by side. Either the word Christ is included, as it appears or omitted.

  So I want to get this straight: has the WT omitted a word from the sacred text? Obviously a doctrinal bias is apparent if so.
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  Mebaqqer2

  Westenddave,

  The New World Translation does not omit “Christ” as you claimed. Below is a transliteration of the Greek text and the New World Translation with the words for "Christ" in bold:

  eraunōntes eis tina ē poion kairon edēlou to en autois pneuma Christou promartyromenon ta eis Christon pathēmata kai tas meta tauta doxas.

  They kept on investigating what particular time or what season the spirit within them was indicating concerning Christ as it testified beforehand about the sufferings meant for Christ and about the glory that would follow. (2013)

  They kept on investigating what particular season or what sort of [season] the spirit in them was indicating concerning Christ when it was bearing witness beforehand about the sufferings for Christ and about the glories to follow these. (1984)

  As you can see, the two instances of “Christ” in 1 Peter 1:11 have indeed both been translated. That being said, I think what you really want to know is why they translated pneuma Christou as “the spirit . . . concerning Christ” instead of “Christ’s spirit.” I didn't find anything justifying their translation on grammatical grounds on the WTLIB, but here is a site from one Witness apologist who makes an argument in defense of their translation ( http://onlytruegod.org/defense/1peter1.11.htm ). Enjoy!

  Mebaqqer
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  Bobcat

  Here is how different translations render it.

  I'm still checking my other references.
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  Bobcat

  There is a close parallel to the phrase in Acts 16:7 (Cmp 1 Pet 1:11 with Acts 16:7)
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  Fernando

  Welcome Westenddave!

  Doctrinal bias for sure.

  One of many examples.

  Great find.

  Profound implications.

  Every prophet had an intimate relationship with Jesus.

  I believe you came accross this for a reason.

  Best wishes on the journey.

  Many here would be delighted to help anytime - please feel free to ask.
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  Ruby456

  this is very interesting westenddave as for the reader there is a huge change/difference in perception between the 1984 and 2013 NWT versions and also then when we go on to compare translations like the niv with the greek text in Mebaqqar's post.

  For me the verse is talking about messianic expectation, speculation and rumour (as pneuma=spirit, wind, breath and according to Jehovahs witnesses life force as well) and in order not to diminish understanding we ought to call these divine because when there is much talk and a need over a long period of time for a messiah to come such a one may or even will appear (even if this is accidently) to take on the role (evolution in the Bible imo). The 1984 nwt by linking Jehovah's spirit to the spirit of Christ was misleading and may have reflected the then JW desire to distance themselves from others. The new references to Daniel and Isaiah are much more in keeping with the Greek text and with what I am saying about messianic expectation.

  thanks for raising this question

  yes Fernando, profound indeed.

  the jewish orthodox bible is interesting

  The Nevi'im were searching for what zman (time) or what context of occasion the Ruach of Moshiach in them was pointing to, when predicting the Chevlei Moshiach and HaKavod to follow.

  here is the kjv trans

  Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow.

  contrast this with the NIV

  inquiring what person or time the Spirit of Christ in them was indicating when he predicted the sufferings of Christ and the subsequent glories