Matt 28:19, 20 - a command to ALL Christians?

by leaving_quietly 1 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • leaving_quietly
    leaving_quietly

    We know what Matt 28:19,20 says, as JWs use this to beat the rank and file over the head with to say that preaching is a command. "Go therefore and make disciples of people of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit, teaching them to observe all the things I have commanded YOU. And, look! I am with YOU all the days until the conclusion of the system of things."

    Notice that this verse does not say to go and preach. It says to go and make disciples, baptizing them and teaching them.

    However, what if there were a verse in the Bible that shows that someone is going directly against this so-called command? I submit to you 1 Corinthians 1:17: "For Christ dispatched me, not to go baptizing, but to go declaring the good news, not with wisdom of speech, that the torture stake of the Christ should not be made useless."

    Paul is here outrightly saying that his commission was opposite of what Jesus said to do in Matt 28:18.

    Things that make you say "hmmm."

  • leaving_quietly
    leaving_quietly

    w68 8/15 p. 511-512:

    Why did the apostle Paul say, as recorded at 1 Corinthians 1:17, that Christ dispatched him “not to go baptizing”? He did baptize believers, did he not?—G.Q., U.S.A.

    In the midst of his comments about a problem with divisions existing in the Corinthian congregation, the apostle Paul wrote: “For Christ dispatched me, not to go baptizing, but to go declaring the good news, not with wisdom of speech, that the torture stake of the Christ should not be made useless.”—1 Cor. 1:17.

    We can be certain that Paul was well aware of Jesus’ command to make disciples and to baptize them. (Matt. 28:19, 20) And Paul traveled widely, making disciples and teaching people to observe all the things Jesus commanded. He did not minimize the importance of baptism, but recommended it.—Acts 19:1-5.

    The statement in 1 Corinthians 1:17 must be understood in context. In the verses before, Paul mentioned that he baptized Crispus, Gaius and the household of Stephanas. (1 Cor. 1:14-16) He was not doing that without Christ’s permission, but, rather, with the authorization recorded at Matthew 28:19.

    The point the apostle was making was that he did not consider the baptizing of individuals his exclusive or primary assignment. Christ specifically told Paul that he was to preach, to be “a witness” to the nations. (Acts 26:16; 9:15) While Paul could and did baptize individuals, there are reasons why he may not have baptized great numbers. The context shows that divisions could spring up. If the apostles themselves specialized in baptizing, it might have contributed to the formation of parties or cliques of Christians baptized by certain men.

    So when Paul stayed in Corinth, some years before writing his first letter to the congregation there, he did baptize some persons. But baptism was not a special rite to be performed just by the apostles, nor was it more meaningful when performed by an apostle than when done by another male member of the Christian congregation.

    This explanation basically says that baptizing isn't the primary thing, lest divisions occur. The reason I looked this up in the first place is because of Paul saying that some say they belong to Apollos or to Cephas, and that divisions exist because of this. However, the baptism rites of JWs specifically associate and identify them with this specific religion, instead of being baptized into Christ. Thus, divisions exist.

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