A days or so ago, never a jw posted a question about the translation of Matthew 11:12. That set me off thinking as a result of which I've posted some notes on my blog:
http://cromptonsmule.blogspot.com
Thanks, Nev, for raising the question!
Matthew 11:12
by RobCrompton 1 Replies latest watchtower bible
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Doug Mason
Hi Rob,
I have a few suggestions, but not the solution.
Firstly, I suggest that the whole context be identified and then see whether or how that verse fits into a chiastic structure. That might provide a clue as its meaning and/or legitimacy.
Secondly, and building on from the first point, study scholarship to see whether they consider that verse would have been spoken by Jesus, whether it was created by the writers or whether a later editor (redactor) inserted it as a "clarifying" comment. Always remember that none of the NT writers was personally aquainted with the murdered Leader (Yeshua/Jesus). They wrote from hearsay, and what they finally wrote reflected their biases and personal ambitions. (There were at least 30 Gospels in use by the middle of the 2nd century.)
Further, while inserting our minds into their times, note that they were expecting an imminent manifestation of divine intervention (kingdom of God), not in the heavenly realm but on earth, removing the Roman oppressors. Jesus would be the king, Peter (with his keys) would be the "Secretary of State"/"Foreign Minister", while the others would fight over who would sit at Jesus' right hand. Their idea of kingdom was very literal and earthly, the restoration of David's throne on earth. Jesus too, expected the manifestation during his lifetime, as did Paul.
Doug