The Christ Not Invisibly Present in 1914!

by wannabe 4 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • wannabe
    wannabe

    Was the Christ Really invisibly present in 1914? Would it not be reasonable, for a Religious Organization, that makes this following claim, that to them alone the Bible is not a sealed Book; that also makes the claim, that they are, "Jehovah's Spirit Directed Organization," to actually miss seeing that it is impossible for the Christ to be invisibly present in the year 1914? Notice what they themselves will tell you about God's sacred word, the Bible, as follows: 1972 Only this organization functions for Jehovah's purpose and to his praise. To it alone God's Sacred Word, the Bible, is not a sealed book. (The Watchtower; 7/1/1973; pp. 402) According to those words, we can expect them, since they are, 'Spirit Directed,' to know all of the truths revealed in this sacred Book, as they say. Was that to really be true, then their reasoning on this matter, would, of necessity have to be true. The question is, is it really true that the Christ was invisibly present in the year 1914? Does the Bible itself support that claim? We know, that the Christ ascended to the right hand of his Father in the first century, and from that point on would be with them, as he said, 'all the days, even unto the conclusion of the system of things.' [Matthew 28:18-20] Notice next what Peter will tell us, about the ascension of Jesus: 33 "Being therefore exalted at the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he has poured out this which you see and hear." [Acts 2:33] [RSV] Now, we need to know, how long Jesus would have to sit at his Fathers right hand, until he came into Kingdom Power? That when he did come, would it be an invisible presence in the year 1914? Or is it entirely possible, that interpretation is seriously flawed reasoning? We will learn that it most certainly is flawed reasoning, and actually shows that the Bible is a sealed Book to them, if it is sealed to anyone. Why do I say that? We already know that the Christ has been seated at his Fathers right hand, since the first century, but notice what his Father had said to him at that time, revealed to us in the Psalms, in these following words of his Father, to him: "The utterance of Jehovah to my Lord [Jesus] is; "Sit at my right hand UNTIL I make your enemies a stool for your feet." The rod of your strength Jehovah will send out of Zion, [saying:] "Go subduing in the midst of your enemies." [Psalms 110:1,2] Do you see, what the Governing Body of the Watchtower Society is missing seeing? Jesus is not able to make one single move, until he gets that command from his Father, to, "Go Subduing in the midst of your enemies." Even Jesus himself, never knew the day or hour for that command to be issued from his Father. According to his own words found at Matthew 24:36! That being the case, how then could the Governing Body of the Watchtower Society, know something that even Jesus himself did not know, and since Jesus is still sitting at his Fathers right hand, waiting for that command to be issued; how could he then, be invisibly present in the year 1914? That is virtually impossible! Too make matters worse for the Governing Body, are the words Matthew penned about the arrival of the Christ in Kingdom Power, found at Matthew 24:29-31- Notice what is said there: "Immediately AFTER the Tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. And then the sign of the son of man will appear in heaven, and then all the tribes of the earth will beat themselves in lamentation, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. And he will send forth his angels with a great trumpet sound, and they will gather his chosen ones together from the four winds, from one extremity of the heavens to the other extremity." Did you notice something else they have missed seeing? Did the words, AFTER THE TRIBULATION OF THOSE DAYS, not ring any bells for you? That tribulation spoken about there has not even occurred as yet, but is still yet future! Two other points are missed. The sign was to appear in heaven, and all will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds with power and great glory. No invisible presence is involved in this scenario at all. Because, it is said, 'all the tribes of the earth are beating themselves in lamentation,' would any invisible presence produce that kind of fear among the races of mankind? The Apostle John predicted exactly the same thing as Matthews account, for John had said: "Look! He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, and those who pierced him; and all the Tribes of the earth will beat themselves in grief because of him." Yes! Amen! [Revelation 1:7] So, with an established record of 130 years of failed predictions and false prophecies, this is just another example of the Watchtowers Societies, blunders, because it is shown, the Christ was not invisibly present in the year 1914, at all. So, if the Bible is really a sealed Book, it has to be sealed to them; and their one hundred and thirty years of failed predictions and false prophecies is ample proof of that. The answer to my theme text question, is NO! Absolutely not! The Christ was not invisibly present in the year 1914 at all! Writer: William James Parker E-mail: [email protected] Previous Topic | Next Topic Reply Quick Navigation: Select a Forum News Moderators Only

  • The Searcher
    The Searcher

    Can I play 'Devil's Advocate here?

    With regard to Christ's presence, the standard answer (which is unscriptural & ludicrous in the extreme!!) is this;

    Christ came in 1919 to cleanse the temple and to select a 'faithful slave class', then he went away again - for circa 100 years give or take - but then he will come back again, this time to finish the job on a global scale!

    Teaching 'traditions of men' invalidates God's Word!!

    Test the inspired expression - to see if it originates with God!!

  • Phizzy
    Phizzy

    Thanks the Searcher, a good summation of their present position, but it means exactly what the thread title says, a fleeting visit is not a "presence" is it ?

  • Ucantnome
    Ucantnome

    i understood that in Matthew 24:3 when the question was asked "will be the sign...?"(NWT) It was a sign. One.

    This was a sign seen with the eyes of faith when the "someone like a son of man happened to be coming: and to the Ancient of Days he gained access, and they brought him up close even before that One. And to him there were given rulership..." (Daniel 7:13.NWT) The 'son of man' mentioned here i think is the first time and Jesus use of it along with "will appear in heaven" tied the sign of Matthew 24:30 to Daniel 7

    The word isn't used again until verse 30. "And then the sign of the Son of man will appear"(NWT)

    Matthew 24:30,31 reads similar to Isaiah 11 where the word used is 'signal' like the standard. Purpose of which was to gather.

    I understood that the remnant of spiritual israel were being gathered and a great crowd. Following 1914. The composite sign was what followed from Christ recieving his kingdom.

    In Isaiah 11 it mentions the 'root of Jesse' the apostle paul quotes isaiah 11 in Romans 15 he also says 'for me to be a public servant of Christ Jesus to the nations engaging in the holy work of the good news of God...'(NWT)

    This suggests to me that Isaiah 11 was having a fulfillment in Paul's day and so maybe Matthew 24:30 was also. The sign being the resurrected Christ who was being preached to the nations and to which they were gathering. Maybe I'm wrong.

  • hamsterbait
    hamsterbait

    In the Matthew discourse, Jesus is actually saying that the end is not coming immediately just because we see wars famines and pestilence.

    he is saying that these things DO NOT indicate the end is near. This has to be correct - why are we still here 100 years after the first WW?

    The end will happen suddenly in one fell swoop, when nobody is expecting it.

    (That is if you still believe in all the stuff in the conflicting gospel accounts)

    The Proclaimers book (p136??) actually says that after the first World War, the "bible students came to realise that Christ did not return (even invisibly) in 1914." ( Weasel words - the WT was teaching he reurned invisibly in 1874 until the 1930s)

    The convoluted reinterpretation of parousia came to Russell, because the expected VISIBLE return of Christ in 1873 did not happen. They predicted it would - Why am I thinking of Deuteronomy 18??

    So why were we saying that on the door to bore misery for all those decades?

    When that part was dealt with in the Kingdumb Misery School, there was no reaction. Why was I not surprised?

    HB

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