When you read, "The Spirit of the Holy God", vs "the spirit of the holy gods" (plural), does that make a difference?????
I invite you to read the 4th chapter of Daniel, in SEVERAL bible translations. Some say The Spirit of the Holy God, and some say, "the spirit of the holy gods".
Now also, this is NEBUCHADNEZZAR speaking, in this chapter. Now in both versions, vs 17 is interesting, "This decision is by the decree of the watchers, and the sentence by the word of the holy ones, in order that the living may know that the Most High rules in the kingdom of men, gives it to whoever he will, and sets it over it the lowest of men.
It is also interesting in vs 30,,,,he says, "Is not this great Babylon, that I have built for a royal dwelling by my mighty power and for the honor of my majesty? (NWT says Babylon the Great), the 7 times (which WT uses is taken from vs 16 of this, which was to happen to him if he took credit for God's doing). If vs 30 is true, then how could Satan offer Jesus the kingdoms of the earth?
Any thoughts on any of these things? Anyone ever looked into it?