Why does this verse say that "the LORD" is holding the golden cup?
Jeremiah 51:7
7 Babylon hath been a golden cup in the LORD's hand, that made all the earth drunken: the nations have drunken of her wine; therefore the nations are mad.
The Golden Cup
by cameo-d 4 Replies latest watchtower bible
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oompa
Rev 14: 8 has a cross reference in the nwt.......and 65 mentions about it in general lit......but the are vague as HELL..........very interesting scripture i have missed.....thanks.......oompa
but it seem that he manipulates them to do whats gotta be done........kinda stupid imo if it is all pre-arranged........
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LouBelle
Jeremiah is speaking of the destruction of Babylon. Gold usually indicates something unbreakable perhaps and thus god is showing that even this so called golden cup of an unbreakable nation will be brought to ruin.
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cameo-d
Psalms 75:8 is used as a cross reference.
8 (A) For in the hand of the LORD there is (B) a cup
with foaming wine, (C) well mixed,
and he pours out from it,
and all the wicked of the earth
shall (D) drain it down to the dregs.Rev. 17:4 is also used as a cross reference:
4 The woman (A) was arrayed in purple and scarlet, and adorned (B) with gold and jewels and pearls, holding in her hand (C) a golden cup full of abominations and the impurities of her sexual immorality.
Also jeremiah 25:15
The Cup of the LORD’s Wrath
15 Thus the LORD, the God of Israel, said to me: (A) "Take from my hand this cup of the wine of wrath, and make all the nations to whom I send you drink it.
Do you still get the same meaning out of it, Loubelle? Others?
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cameo-d
Loubelle: Jeremiah is speaking of the destruction of Babylon. Gold usually indicates something unbreakable perhaps and thus god is showing that even this so called golden cup of an unbreakable nation will be brought to ruin.
There are many cross references between OT and Rev. and those scriptures never seem to be upheld elsewhere in New testament.
Does that not seem a bit odd?
I wonder why?
Also, wouldn't this scripture imply that the great judgement is not for everyone, but only for those who knowingly deceived and misled others for personal gain, or power? Wouldn't the great judgement be for those who have deliberately oppressed others by lying and scaring them?
Wouldn't this mean that "the Lord" has taken the cup out of the harlots hand?