In a previous Thread (http://www.jehovahs-witness.com/12/129801/1.ashx), I posed the question: “Is the GB ‘Christ’”. (In hindsight, I probably should have asked: “Is the GB/FDS ‘the Christ’”.)
In response, Leolaia wrote:
“The original idea was a distinction between "Christ," who is Jesus, and "the Christ," which is composed of Head (Jesus) and Body (all spirit-begotten Christians). In Rutherford's day, those who partake of the bread and wine belong to "the Christ", who share in the glory of Christ (the mystery doctrine). But in the 1950s or 1960s, there was "new light" that claimed that there is no distinction between "Christ" and "the Christ" in the Bible, and so they got rid of the latter expression. But rather than giving up the concept, they simply changed "the Christ" to "the anointed", and they continue to claim that the 144,000 has a special position vis-a-vis the "great crowd" (e.g. the latter are "saved" by the former through association with them).”
* I would like to know if there was an explicit directive given to change from “the Christ” to “the Anointed”, or did this happen through osmosis?
* When I search for “the Christ” (as written, with quotation marks) in the 2006 WT Library CD, it comes back with many responses. Does the organization infer some special meaning when it uses the expression “the Christ”?
Doug