"Scriptural divorce" - Does this interpretation make more sense?

by deaconbluez 2 Replies latest jw friends

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  deaconbluez

  I was thinking about Jesus' words about "whoever divorces and then marries another commits adultry" and I couldn't help but think that Jesus was talking about someone who is married, finds somebody else that they want to be with, and divorces their current mate so that they can marry that other person. Doesn't that make more sense, or is it just me?
  
  The Witnesses teach that Jesus' words were much more rigid and that if a woman's husband beats her or gambles all the family's money away and such, and she divorces him, she wouldn't be free to remarry.

  I was hoping for some input on this.
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  darth frosty

  First witnesses need to stay out of the bedroom. But the whole scriptural divorce thing and being divorced in caesars eyes but not gods is a whole lot of B.S. I know of a couple who got divorced legally, but did not have a scriptural grounds for divorce. The elders advised them of this. Well them both trying to be 'holy' according to WT standards, but still having 'needs'they decide to hook up to satisfy those 'needs'. Well somehow the elders find out and to the back room they go.
  
  The Elders decide that they have committed fornication, ya'll still with me. The elders reason that even though they are not divorced in Gods eyes, they are divorced according to the law of the land, and therefore could present a bad example for worldly folk looking on(of course these worldlies do not presume to decypher what God see's.)
  
  So here you have the classic double entendre of witness B.S. On one hand they want to speak for God and rule what he allows and does not allow. But still they must pay lip service to the ever observant world of man. What a joke of a religion.
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  changeling

  It does make more sense. Unfortunately, "making sense" and logical thought are not top priorities of the WTBS.

  changeling