I was initially researching why the WTBTS applies Daniel 4 to the Gentile Times. The only explanation really given is because both Revelation and Daniel use the term "times". So since Revelation uses the term time, times, and half a time which is 1,260 days and then Daniel uses the term 7 times which represents 2,520 days it must have been God's secret way of telling us that Daniels prophey meant something more. Which still doesn't connect it to the Gentile times in my head. Doesn't seem very logical, even if it is indicating a greater prophecy of 2,520 something - why the end of the gentile times?
Even more illogical is that i noticed they apply the day for a year to the prophecy in Daniel to the "times" but don't apply it to the Revelation times - that is straight up 1,260 days or 3 1/2 years. If they are going to link the two due to the use of times shouldn't the application be the same as well? If the Revelation reference was a secret way to figure out Daniel - wouldn't the times be calculated and used the same way? Well no, says the Society because nothing significant happened after 2,520 days from the Gentile times beginning - so you have to go and apply it differently.
And somehow the 3 1/2 days for the two witnesses earlier in Revelation equals 3 1/2 years (though a different 3 1/2 years than the one a few chapters later - what a coincidence!). However a day for a year is applied for the witnesses - but not for the woman.
And my wife wonders why I stopped attending the book study all together when they started studying this book again.
Morph (3 1/2 times fed up with this nonsense)